mistermack wrote:Seth, what's wrong with your reply to my post is that you seem to be saying that the option of going to civil courts if you are harassed and maligned is good enough.
Depends on what you mean by "harassed." "Harassment" has a specific criminal meaning that goes beyond mere offensive speech. In Colorado, for example, criminal harassment is defined as:
18-9-111. Harassment.
(1) A person commits harassment if, with intent to harass, annoy, or alarm another person, he or she:
(a) Strikes, shoves, kicks, or otherwise touches a person or subjects him to physical contact; or
(b) In a public place directs obscene language or makes an obscene gesture to or at another person; or
(c) Follows a person in or about a public place; or
(d) Repealed.
(e) Initiates communication with a person, anonymously or otherwise, by telephone, telephone network, data network, text message, instant message, computer, computer network, or computer system in a manner intended to harass or threaten bodily injury or property damage, or makes any comment, request, suggestion, or proposal by telephone, computer, computer network, or computer system that is obscene; or
(f) Makes a telephone call or causes a telephone to ring repeatedly, whether or not a conversation ensues, with no purpose of legitimate conversation; or
(g) Makes repeated communications at inconvenient hours that invade the privacy of another and interfere in the use and enjoyment of another's home or private residence or other private property; or
(h) Repeatedly insults, taunts, challenges, or makes communications in offensively coarse language to, another in a manner likely to provoke a violent or disorderly response.
(1.5) As used in this section, unless the context otherwise requires, "obscene" means a patently offensive description of ultimate sexual acts or solicitation to commit ultimate sexual acts, whether or not said ultimate sexual acts are normal or perverted, actual or simulated, including masturbation, cunnilingus, fellatio, anilingus, or excretory functions.
(2) Harassment pursuant to subsection (1) of this section is a class 3 misdemeanor; except that harassment is a class 1 misdemeanor if the offender commits harassment pursuant to subsection (1) of this section with the intent to intimidate or harass another person because of that person's actual or perceived race, color, religion, ancestry, or national origin.
(3) Any act prohibited by paragraph (e) of subsection (1) of this section may be deemed to have occurred or to have been committed at the place at which the telephone call, electronic mail, or other electronic communication was either made or received.
(4) to (6) Repealed.
Annotation: Gravamen of this offense is the thrusting of an offensive and unwanted communication on one who is unable to ignore it. People v. Weeks, 197 Colo. 175, 591 P.2d 91 (1979).
The highlighted section would be what applies here. The question before a court would be was the communication "intended to harass."
The article says:
In one of the posts he called the teenager a slut. He also posted a video on YouTube, entitled Tasha the Tank Engine, showing the children's character Thomas the Tank Engine with Miss MacBryde's face.
Was this "intended to harass?"
First, we have to look at the common definition of "harass," which is variously:
"To irritate or torment persistently; to annoy persistently; to create an unpleasant or hostile situation for especially by uninvited and unwelcome verbal or physical conduct; to disturb persistently; torment, as with troubles or cares; bother continually; pester; persecute."
The legal definition is variously:
"The act of systematic and/or continued unwanted and annoying actions of one party or a group, including threats and demands."
or;
"Harassment is ... generally defined as a course of conduct which annoys, threatens, intimidates, alarms, or puts a person in fear of their safety."
Most of the definitions define repeated offensive conduct and generally not a single episode. Does two instances meet that standard?
Was calling her a "slut" intended to harass, or merely slanderous/libelous, which is a civil tort wrong? Could she have been a slut? If so, truth would be an absolute defense against libel/slander. Was a depiction of her face on a train "intended to harass" or was it an editorial comment on the manner of her death?
It would be a tough call for an American jury to call what he did criminal harassment, but it would likely be an easy tort claim for the parents for "intentional infliction of emotional distress."
The magistrates were also asked to consider three other cases when sentencing Duffy.
He had also posted offensive messages, known as "trolling", about Lauren Drew, 14, of Gloucestershire, who was found dead after suffering a suspected epileptic seizure, Hayley Bates, 16, of Staffordshire, who died in a car crash, and Jordan Cooper, 14, who was stabbed to death in Northumberland.
Magistrates also gave Duffy an Asbo, banning him from using social networking sites for five years.
This is particularly alarming. In American courts, no act not charged as a crime for which he was duly convicted may be so much as PRESENTED to the court, because it's prejudicial. "Trolling" is not a crime, even in the UK, although this ruling seems to suggest it is now.
Well, as far as I'm concerned it's not.
Your opinion is noted.
That means that only the wealthy are protected. Anybody else is fair game, and can be harassed for fun by people like the one that this thread is about.
The issue is whether it's "harassment" or not. Just because you're not rich does not mean that the law can criminalize behavior to protect you. The danger of criminalizing offensive speech is that it becomes nearly impossible to distinguish between what's criminal and what's merely disapproved of by the government or courts, and it provides too much latitude for the government to use the courts to suppress unpopular speech by using the criminal laws.
If a citizen of the UK posts a comment highly critical of some member of the Parliament or some candidate, now that candidate can claim it's criminal harassment because if it's intended to annoy someone (the politician/candidate), it's a crime, even if the claim happens to be true. Surely that's not what you support, is it?
I prefer it that the state takes a hand, and protects people in the worst cases such as this.
Problem is, give the courts/government the power to protect people using the criminal laws in this manner and it very soon results in the widespread suppression of free political and social expression, to the detriment of the rights of the people to speak out against their government. That's precisely why we tolerate offensive speech to such a great degree.
I can't see these people who were targeted getting much protection from the civil courts. They were just ordinary families, not particularly wealthy.
Plenty of hungry lawyers out there willing to take cases on contingency.
"Seth is Grandmaster Zen Troll who trains his victims to troll themselves every time they think of him" Robert_S
"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke
"Those who support denying anyone the right to keep and bear arms for personal defense are fully complicit in every crime that might have been prevented had the victim been effectively armed." Seth
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