Yes. But 'logical arguments' and 'evidence gathered through scientific inquiry' are two different things.I assume that we are agreed that logical arguments and evidence gathered through scientific inquiry are our most dependable means of understanding the world.
Agreed up to a point. I can't see how we can set up 'morality experiments' to test our these and antitheses in the way that most scientific enquiry is performed. As I see it, you will be engaging in more of a mental exercise, where, starting from mutually agreed lemmas, you intend to show that objective morality is an inevitable consequence. So it is logical argument upon which you must build your case and not scientific enquiry.If we are attempting to see if there is such a think as objective morality (and then if there is, what its nature is) then we must also use these same methods.
Agreed. However, in science, that error can be in the theory, the data, the testing equipment, many places. You are mish-mashing scientific method and logical debate here in a confusing manner. Stick to logic and I will agree with that point.In logic and science when we arrive at mutually exclusive truths, we know that an error has been made.
Non-sequitur. You have not shown that objective morality has an isomorphism with scientific method or logical argument. The fact that I agree that inconsistencies in scientific study imply errors does not imply that the same is true of morality. Why must morality follow the same rules as science? One could make similar claims for consistency in spelling but inconsistencies in spelling rules do not imply that there is no objective korekt wey of speling a wurd.We must thus assume the same for morality, if indeed objective morality exists. Therefore, if there is objective morality, it must be internally consistent and not self-contradictory.
Isn't the mere fact that some people do not find things, which you regard as objectively wrong, to be wrong, an inconsistency?