That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

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Coito ergo sum
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Coito ergo sum » Tue Mar 06, 2012 2:55 pm

Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote: Then they are not "natural born citizens." They are just "citizens." That's the core of the entire argument about Obama's eligibility, that a person not born to two US citizens (regardless of where born) is not a "natural born citizen" under the original intent and understanding of the Founders and Ratifiers. It's called the "Vatel Theory," and it's a valid and strong legal theory that deserves to be carefully considered by the Supreme Court, whichever way it comes out.
You overstate your position.

You can't claim the "original intent and understanding of the Founders and Ratifiers." You don' know that. You haven't proved it. You haven't cited a single authority or quoted a single "Founder" or "Ratifier" that says what you said. So, it's as legitimate to say that it was the "original intent" of "the Founders" that they thought being born here to residents of the US (non-transitory) was sufficient.
All that information can be found in the various briefs supporting the Vatel theory. I'm not going to restate them in detail here.
You don't need to restate them in detail -- you could just summarize which founding fathers said what you said they intended, and provide a link.
I did, in another thread. You ignored them. Not going to bother again.
No you didn't. Not the precise proposition you asserted above. You could always link to your post. I'm not going to search for it. Most of your legal arguments are weird anyway, mainly of interest only because they are strange.

Seth wrote:
Moreover, it may never be accepted for review by the SCOTUS. These people are entitled to file their petitions in court, but the SCOTUS only decides a few cases a year out of 1,000s of petitions for certiorari. They likely will abstain from this because it's a political question. The executive and legislative branches need to figure it out. Either they need to add a definition to the constitution, or they need to enact a federal statute providing a definition.
Quite right, it might not be granted certiorari, but then again it might, and IMHO, it should be granted cert so that the matter can be fully and finally resolved and the controversy put to rest forever. Do you have a problem with that?
I have the same problem with that that I have with any other frivolous case clogging up the court dockets.
You just think it's frivolous because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase means. [/quote]

No, I think it's frivolous because your argument is, in my view, wholly devoid of even arguable legal merit. You just think it is a valid theory because it coincides with your larger anti-Obama agenda. I share your agenda in that regard, but I do not stoop to the level of backing spurious claims in order to achieve it.
Seth wrote:
There are cases on file in federal court now. Federal court process is nationwide, so they ought to be subpoenaing documents they need from the State of Hawaii and from other countries thought the Hague Convention that deals with international service of process. If they're not doing that, then that would indicate to me that they aren't serious. That's basic.
I believe they are doing just that.
Are they? Where? When is the deposition? All it takes is a subpoena, which are easy to serve on governmental entities. Shouldn't take more than a few weeks or at worst, if they drag their feet, a few months, to get the thing scheduled.
Seth wrote:
And, where are the depositions being taken of the State of Hawaii officials? They can sit a designated representative of the State of Hawaii down and get the details of what the records in Hawaii show.
I believe it's all in process. But as you well know, such things take time, particularly when the defendants and the courts are laggards deliberately so as to delay the proceedings until it's too late to stop the election. It's political as well as legal, and you know it.
I know exactly how it works. They serve a subpoena -- and there is a form that can be filled in that every law office has used many times - and then the person who receives it must comply, or file a motion for protective order. That could take time to be heard, but not forever -- they are handled in a few months at worst. But, right now, I know of no subpoena even being served, so what would be the hold up? Has a subpoena been served? All federal cases are available for search on "Pacer" -- go look it up -- would cost you under $5 to find out.

Seth wrote:
Some State needs to boot someone from the ballot and then the candidate himself can file for a mandatory injunction requiring the state to list him on the ballot and get an expedited hearing. That might work. Until a Secretary of State of some State or another has the balls to knock a candidate off the ballot on the strength of the NBC clause, then the SCOTUS won't touch and the court won't do the Secretary of States' jobs for them.
Yup, that's what needs to happen.
Don't bet on it. That would mean that a Secretary of State for a given state has looked at the evidence and made a discretionary decision based on the evidence that the candidate has not complied. They will guarantee themselves a lawsuit, and unless they think their legal position is good, they aren't going to do it. There are plenty of Repubican Secretaries of State and Governors around the country. The fact that they won't do it says a lot.
Yup, takes courage to stand up to the panoply of forces against them, that much is true. I wouldn't be surprised if an Obama hit-team took out a Secretary of State who had the temerity to do so. Just look at what happened to all those people close to the Clintons when they posed potential political threats. Being a Clinton acquaintance, friend or employee was an actuarial anomaly of gargantuan proportions, and I wouldn't put it past Obama to do the same sort of thing, all neatly deniable and covertly.[/quote]

Alright -- now you sound like the "Bush did 9/11" crowd and all the folks who thought the Republicans could never lose the Presidency because they owned all the Diebold voting machines. Do you have evidence of an obama hit-team? :bored:


Seth wrote:
These taxpayer challenges are nonsense, and that's why they tend to get booted on standing and other preliminary issues of procedure and technical questions of who a proper party plaintiff is. Having Johnny Joe Dickweed from Podunk, Kentucky file a claim in some federal court claiming that as a taxpayer he has standing to sue to challenge the eligibility of any Presidential candidate will simply never be upheld.
That is a problem, particularly given the fact that Joe Dickweed has a constitutional right to be absolutely certain that the person serving as President of the United States is actually fully qualified to do so.
What provision says that?
The one that says "We the People of the United States, in Order to form a more perfect Union, establish Justice, insure domestic Tranquility, provide for the common defence, promote the general Welfare, and secure the Blessings of Liberty to ourselves and our Posterity, do ordain and establish this Constitution for the United States of America."[/quote]

That provision does not say anything like, "Joe Dickweed has a constitutional right to be absolutely certain that the person serving as President of the United States is actually fully qualified to do so..."

Seth wrote:
Any individuals "absolute certainty" is not now and never has been an issue or a constitutional requirement. The law doesn't require that 300,000,000 US citizens each have absolute certainty about anything. What is required is that the candidate for President qualify to be on the ballot in a particular State. That's it. It doesn't matter what Johnny Dickweed is or is not certain about.
The power to determine if a candidate is qualified to be on the ballot is just one of many powers Johnny Dickweed and the other 300,000,000 of us have DELEGATED to the states or to the federal government.
That makes my point that Johnny Dickweed's "certainty" or lack thereof is irrelevant.
Seth wrote: We didn't abdicate them, we delegated them. The power flows from the People to the state and to the federal government, not the other way around.
of course. But, that doesn't change the fact that Johnny Dickweed in Podunk, Arkansas, doesn't have standing from his armchair to file federal lawsuits challenging someone's right to be on a ballot when the elections official has made the determination that the person qualifies.
Seth wrote: The Constitution sets the criteria to be President, and no state may lawfully depart from that criteria in allowing an individual on the ballot who is unqualified to be there. Therefore, every political delegate responsible for determining the eligibility of a presidential candidate has a duty to Johnny Dickweed and every other citizen to follow the law in making that determination, and any citizen, including Johnny Dickweed, has a right to challenge that decision in court if the citizen believes, and/or has evidence that the candidate is not in fact qualified to hold that office and may not therefore lawfully be placed on the ballot.
Not correct. That has never been the law, not in the 1790's, and not now.


Seth wrote:
This practice of denying standing to citizens to sue to determine such important issues is itself unconstitutional in my view, and represents a deliberate and calculated infringement of the rights of citizens to hold their government accountable to the Constitution.
On what basis? What constitutional provision is being violated? An Amendment? Which section or clause of Article III? Anything?
Article II, Section 1, "No person except a natural born citizen, or a citizen of the United States, at the time of the adoption of this Constitution, shall be eligible to the office of President; neither shall any person be eligible to that office who shall not have attained to the age of thirty-five years, and been fourteen years a resident within the United States."[/quote]

That states the qualification. It doesn't say anything about who can challenge what. The constitution says that the federal government may enact uniform rules of naturalization. That doesn't allow Johnny Dickweed the right to file miscellaneous federal lawsuits challenging any federal statute regarding naturalization and arguing that the rules aren't uniform. Never has, not in the 1790s, and not now.

The rest of your post is TL/DR.

Seth
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Tue Mar 06, 2012 5:43 pm

Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:You just think it's frivolous because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase means.
No, I think it's frivolous because your argument is, in my view, wholly devoid of even arguable legal merit.
That's because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase "natural born citizen" means, not because it doesn't have any legal merit.
You just think it is a valid theory because it coincides with your larger anti-Obama agenda.
I think it's a valid theory because it comports with the Founder's concerns about foreign influence in the White House and because the arguments provided by the proponents are rational and well founded in historical facts and law. It's not really about Obama except that he's the current occupant of the White House and probably shouldn't be, but the same criteria applies to every candidate, Republican, Democrat or independent. If they aren't qualified, they shouldn't be permitted to run or hold the office.

Here's a link to some interesting information about Article II: http://www.art2superpac.com/issues.html
I share your agenda in that regard, but I do not stoop to the level of backing spurious claims in order to achieve it.
You only consider it spurious because it does not comport with your preconceived notion of the meaning of the phrase and you are unwilling to look critically at the evidence and arguments to see if they have legal merit.
Seth wrote: We didn't abdicate them, we delegated them. The power flows from the People to the state and to the federal government, not the other way around.
of course. But, that doesn't change the fact that Johnny Dickweed in Podunk, Arkansas, doesn't have standing from his armchair to file federal lawsuits challenging someone's right to be on a ballot when the elections official has made the determination that the person qualifies.
Actually, in many states it means precisely that. In Georgia it's done one way, in Colorado the challenge to eligibility comes after the primary election and after the individual has won the race:
1-11-202. Who may contest election.
The election of any candidate or the results of an election on any ballot issue or ballot question may be contested by any eligible elector of the political subdivision.

1-11-201. Causes of contest.
(1) The election of any candidate to any office may be contested on any of the following grounds:
(a) That the candidate elected is not eligible to hold the office for which elected;

1-11-203. Contests arising out of primary elections.

(1) All election contests arising out of a primary election, except contests for national or state offices, shall be summarily adjudicated by the district court sitting for the political subdivision within which a contest arises. The court which first acquires jurisdiction of any contest shall have original jurisdiction, subject to appellate review as provided by law and the Colorado appellate rules. In all cases involving contests for state offices, the supreme court shall take original jurisdiction for the purpose of summarily adjudicating any contest.

(2) Every contest shall be instituted by verified petition to the proper court, setting forth the grounds for the contest. The petition shall be filed and a copy served on the contestee within five days after the occurrence of the grounds of the contest. The contestee shall answer under oath within five days after service. If the petition cannot be personally served within the state on the contestee, service may be made by leaving a copy of the petition with the clerk of the court having original jurisdiction of the controversy or contest who shall search for the contestee so that an answer may be filed. Upon the expiration of the time for the answer, the court having jurisdiction of the contest shall forthwith set the matter for trial on the merits and shall summarily adjudicate it.
So, we won't know if there is a challenge in the wings in Colorado until after the primary election on June 26th. Challengers, which means Mr. Dickweed or anybody else who challenges Obama's eligibility has until July 1, 2012 to file such a challenge.
Seth wrote: The Constitution sets the criteria to be President, and no state may lawfully depart from that criteria in allowing an individual on the ballot who is unqualified to be there. Therefore, every political delegate responsible for determining the eligibility of a presidential candidate has a duty to Johnny Dickweed and every other citizen to follow the law in making that determination, and any citizen, including Johnny Dickweed, has a right to challenge that decision in court if the citizen believes, and/or has evidence that the candidate is not in fact qualified to hold that office and may not therefore lawfully be placed on the ballot.
Not correct. That has never been the law, not in the 1790's, and not now.
Wrong. See the statutory citation above. That's Colorado law. Other states have similar laws that permit a challenge to the eligibility of any person seeking office. Georgia's allows such a challenge after the candidate files as a candidate prior to the party caucus. If you're aware of a state that prohibits challenges to the qualification of a candidate entirely by a citizen, I'd be very interested to know about it, because as I said, challenging the qualification of an elected representative to hold that office is a right that accrues to every citizen subject to the authority of that office.



Seth wrote: This practice of denying standing to citizens to sue to determine such important issues is itself unconstitutional in my view, and represents a deliberate and calculated infringement of the rights of citizens to hold their government accountable to the Constitution.
On what basis? What constitutional provision is being violated? An Amendment? Which section or clause of Article III? Anything?
Seth wrote:Article II, Section 1, "No person except a natural born citizen, or a citizen of the United States, at the time of the adoption of this Constitution, shall be eligible to the office of President; neither shall any person be eligible to that office who shall not have attained to the age of thirty-five years, and been fourteen years a resident within the United States."
That states the qualification. It doesn't say anything about who can challenge what.


Right. The federal Declaratory Judgment Act, , 28 U.S.C. §§ 2201-2202, says who can ask for a determination of the law such as the meaning of the term "natural born citizen."
§ 2201. Creation of remedy
(a) In a case of actual controversy within its
jurisdiction, except with respect to Federal
taxes other than actions brought under section
7428 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, a proceeding
under section 505 or 1146 of title 11, or in
any civil action involving an antidumping or
countervailing duty proceeding regarding a class
or kind of merchandise of a free trade area country
(as defined in section 516A(f)(10) of the Tariff
Act of 1930), as determined by the administering
authority, any court of the United States, upon
the filing of an appropriate pleading, may declare
the rights and other legal relations of any
interested party seeking such declaration,
whether or not further relief is or could be
sought. Any such declaration shall have the
force and effect of a final judgment or decree
and shall be reviewable as such.
(emphasis added)

§ 2202. Further relief
Further necessary or proper relief based on a
declaratory judgment or decree may be granted,
after reasonable notice and hearing, against any
adverse party whose rights have been determined
by such judgment.
The rest of your post is TL/DR.
As is all of your denialism.
"Seth is Grandmaster Zen Troll who trains his victims to troll themselves every time they think of him" Robert_S

"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke

"Those who support denying anyone the right to keep and bear arms for personal defense are fully complicit in every crime that might have been prevented had the victim been effectively armed." Seth

© 2013/2014/2015/2016 Seth, all rights reserved. No reuse, republication, duplication, or derivative work is authorized.

Coito ergo sum
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Coito ergo sum » Tue Mar 06, 2012 7:07 pm

Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:You just think it's frivolous because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase means.
No, I think it's frivolous because your argument is, in my view, wholly devoid of even arguable legal merit.
That's because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase "natural born citizen" means, not because it doesn't have any legal merit.
No, it's because your argument doesn't have any legal merit. I'm not the one making an assertion. I don't need to give the phrase a meaning. You do. And, your argument is very unpersuasive.
Seth wrote:
You just think it is a valid theory because it coincides with your larger anti-Obama agenda.
I think it's a valid theory because it comports with the Founder's concerns about foreign influence in the White House
2 citizen parents is vast overkill in that regard. Someone born here, of resident parents, is plenty, and is fully in accord with "the Founder's" concerns about foreign influence.
Seth wrote: and because the arguments provided by the proponents are rational and well founded in historical facts and law. It's not really about Obama except that he's the current occupant of the White House and probably shouldn't be, but the same criteria applies to every candidate, Republican, Democrat or independent. If they aren't qualified, they shouldn't be permitted to run or hold the office.

Here's a link to some interesting information about Article II: http://www.art2superpac.com/issues.html
That's a very deceptively written piece. For example, it has this bit:
Hamilton’s suggested presidential citizenship eligibility requirement was that a Citizen simply had to be ‘born a Citizen’ of the USA, i.e., a Citizen by Birth. But that citizenship status was overwhelmingly rejected by the framers as insufficient. Instead of allowing any person “born a citizen” to be President and Commander of the military, the framers chose to adopt the more stringent requirement recommended by John Jay, i.e., requiring the Citizen to be a “natural born Citizen“, to block any chance of future Presidents owing allegiance to other foreign nations or claims on their allegiance at birth from becoming President and Commander of the Military.. Therefore, the President of the United States must be a “natural born citizen” with unity of citizenship and sole allegiance to the United States at birth. [SOURCE CREDIT]
That sounds like they were discussing the issue. They weren't. There is no reason to think that John Jay or Hamilton knew of the other's view on the topic. There is no evidence of any deliberations over the issue at the Constitutional convention.

Moreover, John Jay's language was not "more stringent" language offered to replace Hamilton's less stringent language. Jay just used the phrase "natural born citizen" in a letter to George Washington." He did not say that it meant "two parents who were both citizens." He didn't even say it meant anything other than born a citizen of the US.

Hamilton had a draft Constitution that he put together, but he never subjected it to deliberations, and it was never submitted to the Constitutional Convention. He sent it to a friend AFTER the close of the Convention. It's language was very similar in which hamilton said "born a citizen of the US" and there is no indication anywhere that that means anything different than "natural born citizen."

Yet, the source you linked to paints a picture that Hamilton had proposed "born a citizen" which everyone knows is a less stringent standard than "natural born citizen" and then there was some battle between the Jay proposal and the Hamilton proposal and Jay won out. That did not happen, and there is, again, no indication that those two phrases don't mean the same thing.
Seth wrote:
I share your agenda in that regard, but I do not stoop to the level of backing spurious claims in order to achieve it.
You only consider it spurious because it does not comport with your preconceived notion of the meaning of the phrase and you are unwilling to look critically at the evidence and arguments to see if they have legal merit.
No, I consider it spurious because everything you've cited to support is unpersuasive at best, and deceptively crafted at worst.

You WANT to believe it, which is why no matter how tenuous the claim, and no matter how artfully worded the arguments, you find them persuasive - they meet your preconceived notions.

Coito ergo sum
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Coito ergo sum » Tue Mar 06, 2012 7:18 pm

Seth wrote:
That states the qualification. It doesn't say anything about who can challenge what.


Right. The federal Declaratory Judgment Act, , 28 U.S.C. §§ 2201-2202, says who can ask for a determination of the law such as the meaning of the term "natural born citizen."
§ 2201. Creation of remedy
(a) In a case of actual controversy within its
jurisdiction, except with respect to Federal
taxes other than actions brought under section
7428 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, a proceeding
under section 505 or 1146 of title 11, or in
any civil action involving an antidumping or
countervailing duty proceeding regarding a class
or kind of merchandise of a free trade area country
(as defined in section 516A(f)(10) of the Tariff
Act of 1930), as determined by the administering
authority, any court of the United States, upon
the filing of an appropriate pleading, may declare
the rights and other legal relations of any
interested party seeking such declaration,
whether or not further relief is or could be
sought. Any such declaration shall have the
force and effect of a final judgment or decree
and shall be reviewable as such.
(emphasis added)

§ 2202. Further relief
Further necessary or proper relief based on a
declaratory judgment or decree may be granted,
after reasonable notice and hearing, against any
adverse party whose rights have been determined
by such judgment.
You are misreading the Declaratory Judgments Act. It does not give citizens the right to sue in any federal court for an interpretation on the meaning of any constitutional provision. Declaratory relief is appropriate where a litigant needs direction from a court before from taking future action. Johnny Dickweed's future action is not at issue. The State authority could sue for a declaratory judgment against someone trying to make it on the ballot who doesn't qualify, and a person trying to get on the ballot can sue to get a declaratory judgment that he ought to be on the ballot, rather than wait for the denial. So far, nobody has filed such a declaratory judgment action. The issue in a Dec Action is whether the plaintiff's future course of action may subject them to liability. Not whether some armchair quarterback wants a provision in the constitution reviewed. They don't have standing.

You're in the area of "a little knowledge is a dangerous thing."

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by mistermack » Wed Mar 07, 2012 10:03 pm

Why not take it all the way?

You can't be head of state, unless one of your parents were head of state.

Now where have I heard that before?

And going by the election of George W Bush, a lot of Americans would be happy with that.
While there is a market for shit, there will be assholes to supply it.

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Wed Mar 07, 2012 10:20 pm

Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:
That states the qualification. It doesn't say anything about who can challenge what.


Right. The federal Declaratory Judgment Act, , 28 U.S.C. §§ 2201-2202, says who can ask for a determination of the law such as the meaning of the term "natural born citizen."
§ 2201. Creation of remedy
(a) In a case of actual controversy within its
jurisdiction, except with respect to Federal
taxes other than actions brought under section
7428 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, a proceeding
under section 505 or 1146 of title 11, or in
any civil action involving an antidumping or
countervailing duty proceeding regarding a class
or kind of merchandise of a free trade area country
(as defined in section 516A(f)(10) of the Tariff
Act of 1930), as determined by the administering
authority, any court of the United States, upon
the filing of an appropriate pleading, may declare
the rights and other legal relations of any
interested party seeking such declaration,
whether or not further relief is or could be
sought. Any such declaration shall have the
force and effect of a final judgment or decree
and shall be reviewable as such.
(emphasis added)

§ 2202. Further relief
Further necessary or proper relief based on a
declaratory judgment or decree may be granted,
after reasonable notice and hearing, against any
adverse party whose rights have been determined
by such judgment.
You are misreading the Declaratory Judgments Act. It does not give citizens the right to sue in any federal court for an interpretation on the meaning of any constitutional provision. Declaratory relief is appropriate where a litigant needs direction from a court before from taking future action. Johnny Dickweed's future action is not at issue.
Sure it is. Under state law Johnny is legally entitled to file a challenge to Obama's eligibility to be on the Colorado presidential ballot. In order to take that future action, Johnny needs to know that the federal definition of "natural born citizen" is, and he is therefore entitled to ask a federal court to say what the law is.
The State authority could sue for a declaratory judgment against someone trying to make it on the ballot who doesn't qualify, and a person trying to get on the ballot can sue to get a declaratory judgment that he ought to be on the ballot, rather than wait for the denial. So far, nobody has filed such a declaratory judgment action.
Under Colorado election law, a challenge to the eligibility of a candidate cannot be filed until the primary election has been certified. If such a challenge is filed, a companion federal suit can be filed for a determination of law by declaratory judgment as to the meaning of "natural born citizen," which is the appropriate venue because Colorado courts cannot rule on the meaning of constitutional language, only the federal courts can do so.
The issue in a Dec Action is whether the plaintiff's future course of action may subject them to liability. Not whether some armchair quarterback wants a provision in the constitution reviewed. They don't have standing.
According to Colorado law, they do have standing to challenge the qualifications of ANY person on the ballot, so they do have standing to ask for a federal court to state what the law is, which is what a declaratory judgment is for. The liability for the plaintiff is the direct, immediate and irreparable harm of having a President who is not legally qualified to hold that office.
You're in the area of "a little knowledge is a dangerous thing."
And you're in deep denial.
"Seth is Grandmaster Zen Troll who trains his victims to troll themselves every time they think of him" Robert_S

"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke

"Those who support denying anyone the right to keep and bear arms for personal defense are fully complicit in every crime that might have been prevented had the victim been effectively armed." Seth

© 2013/2014/2015/2016 Seth, all rights reserved. No reuse, republication, duplication, or derivative work is authorized.

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Wed Mar 07, 2012 10:31 pm

Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:You just think it's frivolous because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase means.
No, I think it's frivolous because your argument is, in my view, wholly devoid of even arguable legal merit.
That's because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase "natural born citizen" means, not because it doesn't have any legal merit.
No, it's because your argument doesn't have any legal merit. I'm not the one making an assertion. I don't need to give the phrase a meaning. You do. And, your argument is very unpersuasive.
You only say that because the legal argument (which does have merit) doesn't comport with your own notions of what the phrase means. and your idea of "legal merit" is hardly determinative of anything, your not being a Supreme Court Justice and all.
Seth wrote:
You just think it is a valid theory because it coincides with your larger anti-Obama agenda.
I think it's a valid theory because it comports with the Founder's concerns about foreign influence in the White House
2 citizen parents is vast overkill in that regard. Someone born here, of resident parents, is plenty, and is fully in accord with "the Founder's" concerns about foreign influence.
I disagree. So did the Founders. That's why they created the additional bar of "natural born citizen" solely and only as a qualification to be President and did not mention the term in any other place where qualifications for office are found. That fact has substantial and important meaning.
Seth wrote: and because the arguments provided by the proponents are rational and well founded in historical facts and law. It's not really about Obama except that he's the current occupant of the White House and probably shouldn't be, but the same criteria applies to every candidate, Republican, Democrat or independent. If they aren't qualified, they shouldn't be permitted to run or hold the office.

Here's a link to some interesting information about Article II: http://www.art2superpac.com/issues.html
That's a very deceptively written piece. For example, it has this bit:
Hamilton’s suggested presidential citizenship eligibility requirement was that a Citizen simply had to be ‘born a Citizen’ of the USA, i.e., a Citizen by Birth. But that citizenship status was overwhelmingly rejected by the framers as insufficient. Instead of allowing any person “born a citizen” to be President and Commander of the military, the framers chose to adopt the more stringent requirement recommended by John Jay, i.e., requiring the Citizen to be a “natural born Citizen“, to block any chance of future Presidents owing allegiance to other foreign nations or claims on their allegiance at birth from becoming President and Commander of the Military.. Therefore, the President of the United States must be a “natural born citizen” with unity of citizenship and sole allegiance to the United States at birth. [SOURCE CREDIT]
That sounds like they were discussing the issue. They weren't. There is no reason to think that John Jay or Hamilton knew of the other's view on the topic. There is no evidence of any deliberations over the issue at the Constitutional convention.

Moreover, John Jay's language was not "more stringent" language offered to replace Hamilton's less stringent language. Jay just used the phrase "natural born citizen" in a letter to George Washington." He did not say that it meant "two parents who were both citizens." He didn't even say it meant anything other than born a citizen of the US.

Hamilton had a draft Constitution that he put together, but he never subjected it to deliberations, and it was never submitted to the Constitutional Convention. He sent it to a friend AFTER the close of the Convention. It's language was very similar in which hamilton said "born a citizen of the US" and there is no indication anywhere that that means anything different than "natural born citizen."

Yet, the source you linked to paints a picture that Hamilton had proposed "born a citizen" which everyone knows is a less stringent standard than "natural born citizen" and then there was some battle between the Jay proposal and the Hamilton proposal and Jay won out. That did not happen, and there is, again, no indication that those two phrases don't mean the same thing.
There's more evidence that "natural born citizen" means something different and distinct from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen" than there is in support of your unsupported assertion that it doesn't. That phrase appears in one and only one place in the Constitution, the qualification to be President, and you know full well that every word of the Constitution must be presumed to have meaning and that none are surplusage. That means that "natural born" adds something to "citizen" that neither "citizen" nor "naturalized citizen" means, and the evidence in the record indicates that it means a person born to two parents both of whom are US citizens. You have not provided any evidence that the meaning of "citizen" and "natural born citizen" are synonymous.
Seth wrote:
I share your agenda in that regard, but I do not stoop to the level of backing spurious claims in order to achieve it.
You only consider it spurious because it does not comport with your preconceived notion of the meaning of the phrase and you are unwilling to look critically at the evidence and arguments to see if they have legal merit.
[No, I consider it spurious because everything you've cited to support is unpersuasive at best, and deceptively crafted at worst.

You WANT to believe it, which is why no matter how tenuous the claim, and no matter how artfully worded the arguments, you find them persuasive - they meet your preconceived notions.
Well, your not being a Supreme Court (or even federal court) Justice, your opinion of the persuasiveness of the argument is rather more than a little irrelevant, isn't it? You have presented no countervailing evidence supporting your assertions I'm afraid, so I'm going to have to go with the legal experts who have actually reviewed the evidence and presented a most convincing case.
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Coito ergo sum
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Coito ergo sum » Wed Mar 07, 2012 11:04 pm

Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:
Coito ergo sum wrote:
Seth wrote:You just think it's frivolous because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase means.
No, I think it's frivolous because your argument is, in my view, wholly devoid of even arguable legal merit.
That's because it doesn't comport with your own preconceived notions of what the phrase "natural born citizen" means, not because it doesn't have any legal merit.
No, it's because your argument doesn't have any legal merit. I'm not the one making an assertion. I don't need to give the phrase a meaning. You do. And, your argument is very unpersuasive.
You only say that because the legal argument (which does have merit) doesn't comport with your own notions of what the phrase means. and your idea of "legal merit" is hardly determinative of anything, your not being a Supreme Court Justice and all.
Your idea of legal merit is not determinative of anything either. Who is talking about determinative? Not me.

But, my argument is not based on my preconceived notions. I've drawn a conclusion based on my review of the law. Just because my conclusions are not determinative does not mean that my conclusions are preconceived.

YOUR notions are preconceived because you'd support anything that was anti-Obama.


Seth wrote:
You just think it is a valid theory because it coincides with your larger anti-Obama agenda.
I think it's a valid theory because it comports with the Founder's concerns about foreign influence in the White House
2 citizen parents is vast overkill in that regard. Someone born here, of resident parents, is plenty, and is fully in accord with "the Founder's" concerns about foreign influence.
I disagree. So did the Founders. That's why they created the additional bar of "natural born citizen" solely and only as a qualification to be President and did not mention the term in any other place where qualifications for office are found. That fact has substantial and important meaning.[/quote]

No, the "Founders" did not "disagree." That's another positive assertion you've made -- back it up. Give me a quote or two from "the Founders" please.

Yes, but in the other instances the difference is that the congressmen did not need to be born here in the US at all. They just need to be 25 years old and have been a US citizen for 7 years.

You might have a point that there must be different meanings to different terms if a congressman had to be a citizen "born in the US," but the President had to be a "natural born citizen." Then there might be an issue that the drafters used different terms for a reason, and that they must mean something different.

So, your attempt to manufacture a distinction that "natural born citizen" is used solely as a qualification for President is a red herring.

One does not even need to have been born in the US -- or even be a US citizen to be a SCOTUS Justice, by the way.
Seth wrote: and because the arguments provided by the proponents are rational and well founded in historical facts and law. It's not really about Obama except that he's the current occupant of the White House and probably shouldn't be, but the same criteria applies to every candidate, Republican, Democrat or independent. If they aren't qualified, they shouldn't be permitted to run or hold the office.

Here's a link to some interesting information about Article II: http://www.art2superpac.com/issues.html
That's a very deceptively written piece. For example, it has this bit:
Hamilton’s suggested presidential citizenship eligibility requirement was that a Citizen simply had to be ‘born a Citizen’ of the USA, i.e., a Citizen by Birth. But that citizenship status was overwhelmingly rejected by the framers as insufficient. Instead of allowing any person “born a citizen” to be President and Commander of the military, the framers chose to adopt the more stringent requirement recommended by John Jay, i.e., requiring the Citizen to be a “natural born Citizen“, to block any chance of future Presidents owing allegiance to other foreign nations or claims on their allegiance at birth from becoming President and Commander of the Military.. Therefore, the President of the United States must be a “natural born citizen” with unity of citizenship and sole allegiance to the United States at birth. [SOURCE CREDIT]
That sounds like they were discussing the issue. They weren't. There is no reason to think that John Jay or Hamilton knew of the other's view on the topic. There is no evidence of any deliberations over the issue at the Constitutional convention.

Moreover, John Jay's language was not "more stringent" language offered to replace Hamilton's less stringent language. Jay just used the phrase "natural born citizen" in a letter to George Washington." He did not say that it meant "two parents who were both citizens." He didn't even say it meant anything other than born a citizen of the US.

Hamilton had a draft Constitution that he put together, but he never subjected it to deliberations, and it was never submitted to the Constitutional Convention. He sent it to a friend AFTER the close of the Convention. It's language was very similar in which hamilton said "born a citizen of the US" and there is no indication anywhere that that means anything different than "natural born citizen."

Yet, the source you linked to paints a picture that Hamilton had proposed "born a citizen" which everyone knows is a less stringent standard than "natural born citizen" and then there was some battle between the Jay proposal and the Hamilton proposal and Jay won out. That did not happen, and there is, again, no indication that those two phrases don't mean the same thing.
There's more evidence that "natural born citizen" means something different and distinct from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen" than there is in support of your unsupported assertion that it doesn't. [/quote]

Now you are being just downright dishonest, Seth.

I never once said that natural born citizen doesn't mean something different from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen." It does.

A citizen can either be born a citizen, or be naturalized a citizen. If a law specifies that someone must be a "citizen" then either a natural born or natural-ized citizen will do. If the law specifies natural born citizen, then natural-ized citizen will not do.
Seth wrote: That phrase appears in one and only one place in the Constitution, the qualification to be President, and you know full well that every word of the Constitution must be presumed to have meaning and that none are surplusage.
Look - there is only one place where the Constitution prescribes that anyone must be born a citizen of the US to be anything. That's in the qualification for President. There is no place where it says a person must be "born a citizen" of the US to qualify for some other office. If it did, then you would have a point. But, it doesn't, so you don't.

Look at the 14th Amendment, incidentally, "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside." There are only two options. A citizen is either (a) born in the US, or (b) naturalized in the US. That's it. That usage does not conflict with the verbiage in the original constitution that the president must be a natural born citizen, because it's just specifying that he can't be the other kind of citizen (natural-ized) and be President.
Seth wrote:
That means that "natural born" adds something to "citizen" that neither "citizen" nor "naturalized citizen" means, and the evidence in the record indicates that it means a person born to two parents both of whom are US citizens. You have not provided any evidence that the meaning of "citizen" and "natural born citizen" are synonymous.
What other qualification provision are you saying exists? The Congressional qualification provision does use just the term "citizen" but that's because the Congressmen can be either natural born, or naturalized, citizens.

Seth wrote:
I share your agenda in that regard, but I do not stoop to the level of backing spurious claims in order to achieve it.
You only consider it spurious because it does not comport with your preconceived notion of the meaning of the phrase and you are unwilling to look critically at the evidence and arguments to see if they have legal merit.
[No, I consider it spurious because everything you've cited to support is unpersuasive at best, and deceptively crafted at worst.

You WANT to believe it, which is why no matter how tenuous the claim, and no matter how artfully worded the arguments, you find them persuasive - they meet your preconceived notions.
Well, your not being a Supreme Court (or even federal court) Justice, your opinion of the persuasiveness of the argument is rather more than a little irrelevant, isn't it? You have presented no countervailing evidence supporting your assertions I'm afraid, so I'm going to have to go with the legal experts who have actually reviewed the evidence and presented a most convincing case.[/quote]

whether it's relevant to you is beside the point. I'm correct. And, your argument fails for want of logic.

I have presented countervailing evidence -- the correct wording of the Constitution. I've pointed out the defects in your argument, which mean your arguments are defective, and therefore unpersuasive. Since you're making the positive assertion, you've failed your burden of proof.

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by apophenia » Thu Mar 08, 2012 6:14 pm




Seth's arguments remind me a lot of copy ad announcing books/films/shows that try to enhance the appeal of the product by adding unnecessary superlatives such as "controversial", "shocking", and "thought provoking" to their description, as if consumers don't know that this is just a trick to try to get them to believe things about the subject without any real substantiation that they are deserving of such description. I could describe Coito's arguments as "an epic, airtight and jaw-droppping refutation of birther delusions" but that would hardly persuade in the absence of evidence, unless you're Terry Sciavo, or a member of Seth's target constituency.

I have to thank Seth, though, by wheedling on as he has, he's solicited aspects of the birther arguments from Coito that I hadn't seen, only further strengthening the claims that birthers have no argument.

Beyond all the rot about Vatel and the meaning of the phrase "natural born subject" in British common law, the matter revolves not on a disagreement that the phrase "natural born" citizen has this or that meaning, but more that there is no clear evidence about what if any meaning it has apart from simply referring to a person born a citizen, perhaps on U.S. soil. Coito is right in pointing out that the birthers assertion that it has some specific meaning is the claim that shoulders the burden of proof. We don't have to demonstrate that the phrase has some other meaning than this, only that there is no demonstrable root or support for any specific meaning. I'm reminded of my reading of the bible. I usually read the King James version, but a frequent notation alongside the passages is an indication that the translation of this or that term is unclear or unknown. There are many words in the bible whose specific meaning has simply been lost to time. That doesn't render these passages meaningless, but it does make it a tough sell for anyone who wants to claim that a specific passage has a specific interpretation based on their putative meaning of one of those lost words. Sure, they can make all sorts of philological, hermeneutic or what have you argument for their pet meaning, but at the end of the day, the most probable conclusion is that we just don't know what the original author meant with that word. The Birthers are in the same position. We just don't know what, if any, difference the founders intended in using that phrase, and most of the Birther arguments tend to devolve into attempting to channel the spirits of the founders by creating a simulacrum of their age and time by cobbling together all the political documents and theory of the time, kind of like a Walt Disney animatron history display where we can "feel like we're actually listening to Honest Abe speak!" I'm reminded of the fundamentalist slogan, "God said it, I believe it, end of discussion." Unfortunately, with the Birther issue, we don't really have any clear case where "the founders said it," so we're left with impotent speculations, which, even if you personally find them persuasive, are not a good foundation for law.


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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Thu Mar 08, 2012 10:03 pm

Coito ergo sum wrote:
But, my argument is not based on my preconceived notions. I've drawn a conclusion based on my review of the law. Just because my conclusions are not determinative does not mean that my conclusions are preconceived.
What law are you referring to? What law have you cited that defines "natural born citizen" as you suggest? None. There is no such law. That's the problem. The only law we have is the presidential qualification provision and a couple of Supreme Court rulings that are not on-point but are indicative of support for the Vattel theory, not indicative of support of your notion that "natural born citizen" is synonymous with "citizen" and is a function of being born under US jurisdiction regardless of the citizenship of one's parents.

If you have a law that defines "natural born citizen" I'd love for you to cite it, because that would go a long way towards resolving this dispute.

You don't have such a law, so your "review of the law" appears to be quite superficial and based only in your preconceived notions of the meaning of the phrase "natural born citizen" and not in the actual law and precedents and historical understandings upon which this dispute is legitimately based.

I'm willing to admit that I could be wrong and that the Vattel theory is bunkum in its entirety and would accept a Supreme Court decision on the meaning of "natural born citizen," and that's precisely why I'm arguing that the Court should take up the controversy and resolve it with finality after a proper review of the evidence.

You, on the other hand, don't want the case to come to court so you characterize the controversy as being "without legal merit." That leads me to believe that there is more legal merit there than you care to admit and you're afraid of the consequences of a court actually examining all the evidence and making a ruling.

Given the efforts of the Democrats in Congress back in 2008 to enact legislation to explicitly define the meaning of "natural born citizen" specifically to accommodate the fact that Obama doesn't qualify, I think that the Vattel theory has substantial and important legal merit and that the Democrats, and you, are scared to death that the controversy will come before the Court and Obama will lose. This, I suspect, is why there is so much institutionalized resistance to such a case getting before the federal courts, and I suspect another attempt at a fait accompli, which is exactly what happened when Obama was elected the first time.

Regardless of the outcome, I wish to see the ambiguity fully and finally resolved and any such future controversy forestalled by having the Supreme Court hand down a declaratory judgment (on appeal) stating the precise meaning of the term "natural born citizen" REGARDLESS of how the Court rules.

That you do not wish to see this sort of finality and certainty in such an important legal issue as the precise definition and meaning of the qualification for President is more than a little alarming, and it indicates to me that you want the ambiguity to remain, so that it can be misused in the future to allow your favorite unqualified candidate to become President in defiance of the Constitution.
YOUR notions are preconceived because you'd support anything that was anti-Obama.
Yes, I would because Obama is a Progressive Marxist and is a danger to the Republic, that much I know with certainty, but that's entirely beside the point of this controversy. I'd also feel the same way about ANY candidate for President, from either side. It just so happens that Obama is the perfect case for the Court to take up because his situation makes the controversy ripe for a decision.
Yes, but in the other instances the difference is that the congressmen did not need to be born here in the US at all. They just need to be 25 years old and have been a US citizen for 7 years.

You might have a point that there must be different meanings to different terms if a congressman had to be a citizen "born in the US," but the President had to be a "natural born citizen." Then there might be an issue that the drafters used different terms for a reason, and that they must mean something different.

So, your attempt to manufacture a distinction that "natural born citizen" is used solely as a qualification for President is a red herring.

One does not even need to have been born in the US -- or even be a US citizen to be a SCOTUS Justice, by the way.
It's far from a red herring. It's the fundamental argument. The Founders discussed the qualifications for Senators and Representatives at length during the writing of the Constitution and the Ratifiers discussed them publicly as during the ratification debates. It's idiocy to assume that they did not have as much concern for the qualifications for President. It's particularly idiocy because of the language that they actually used in that qualification, which is substantially and deliberately DIFFERENT from the qualifications for Senator or Representative, and deliberately MORE RESTRICTIVE which is clearly evidenced by the "natural born citizen" requirement.

You well know the maxims of statutory interpretation, but here are some for the edification of others:
LAW SCHOOL FOR LEGISLATORS
Rules of Statutory Interpretation
I. Role of the Court.
1. The proper interpretation of a statute is a judicial function.
In re Complaint of Rovas Against SBC Michigan, 482 Mich 90, 99 (2008)
2. When interpreting a statute, the court attempts to ascertain and give effect to the
intent of the Legislature.
People v Gardner, 482 Mich 41, 84 (2008)
3. Court may not speculate about the probable intent of the legislature beyond the
language expressed in the statute.
Griswold Properties LLC v Lexington Ins. Co., 276 Mich App 551, 556 (2007)
4. In determining legislative intent, the courts look first into the specific language of the
statute.
People v Underwood, 278 Mich App 334, 338 (2008)
II. Clear vs. Ambiguous Language
1. Statutory language is ambiguous when it is equally susceptible to more than one
meaning, not when reasonable minds can disagree regarding its meaning.
Toll Northville LTD v Twp. of Northville, 480 Mich 6, 15 (2008)
2. Clear and unambiguous language in given its plain and ordinary meaning.
In re LE, 278 Mich App 1, 22 (2008)
3. An undefined term is given its plain and ordinary meaning.
(a) A "legal term of art" is given its peculiar legal meaning.
(b) Terms that have a unique legal meaning are given the definition found in a
lay dictionary, such as Random House Webster's College Dictionary.
Brackett v Focus Hope, Inc., 482 Mich 269, 275 (2008); MCL 8.3(a)
4. Clear and unambiguous language should be enforced as written.
In re McLeod USA Telecommunications Services, Inc. 277 Mich App 602, 609
(2008)
5. If the language is clear and unambiguous, the courts must apply it as written even
if it leads to absurd results.
Kimmelman v Heather Downs Management Ltd., 278 Mich App 569 (2008)
6. "Absurd" means utterly and obviously senseless, illogical or untrue; contrary to all
reason and common sense. It does not mean that reasonable people would think
that the Legislature acted improvidently.
McGhee v Helsel, 262 Mich App 221, 226 (2004)
7. The court may depart from a literal interpretation of unambiguous statutory
language that produces an absurd and unjust result that is inconsistent with the
purpose and policies of the statute.
People v Bewersdorf, 438 Mich 55,68 (1991)
III General Principles of Interpretation
1. Every word of a statute should be read to give it meaning, and so the court must
avoid interpretations that render words unnecessary or meaningless.
In re MCI Communications, 460 Mich 396,415 (1999)

2. Unclear statutory language will be construed so as to avoid absurd results, injustice
and prejudice to the public interest.
Hill v City of Warren, 276 Mich App 299, 305 (2007)
3. Statutes are to be read as a whole to ascertain the intent of the Legislature, and any
provisions that are apparently inconsistent are interpreted to produce a harmonious
whole, if reasonably possible.
Macomb County Prosecutor v Murphy, 464 Mich 149, 160 (2001)
Bailey v Oakwood Hosp. and Medical Center, 472 Mich 685, 693 (2005)
Nowell v Titan Ins. Co., 466 Mich 478, 482 (2002)
4. Statutes that relate to the same subject ("in pari materia") are to be read and
construed together.
In re MCI Telecommunications Complaint, 460 Mich 396, 417 (1999)
5. In interpreting a statute, the court presumes that the legislature is aware of:
(a) judicial interpretations of existing law
Ford Motor Co. v City of Woodhaven, 475 Mich 425, 439 (2006)
(b) the existence of the common law, so that (i) statutes are interpreted
consistent with their terms even if those terms conflict with the common law
and (ii) common law rules are not abolished by implication.
Spires v Bergman, 276 Mich App 432, 438 (2007)
Houghton Lake Area Tourism and Conservation Bureau v Wood,
255 Mich App 127, 149 (2003)
(c) the laws on the same subject and the effect of new enactments on existing
laws.
Wayne County v Wayne County Retirement Comm'n.,
267 Mich App 230, 244 (2005)
(d) the rules of statutory interpretation.
People v Clark, 274 Mich App 248, 252 (2007)
IV Rules for Interpreting Specific Language
1. A word or phrase is given meaning by its context or setting
Crowe v City of Detroit, 465 Mich 1, 6 (2001)
2. Where a general term follows a series of specific terms, the general term is
interpreted to include only things of the same kind, class, character or nature of
those specifically enumerated
Neal v Wilkes, 470 Mich 661 (2004)
3. Where a statute contains a specific provision and a more general related provision,
the specific one controls.
In re Haley, 476 Mich 180,199 (2006)
4. The expression of one thing in a statute means the exclusion of other similar things:
Alan v Wayne County, 388 Mich 210,253 (1970)
5. "Last antecedent rule": a modifying or restrictive word or clause contained in a
statute refers solely to the immediately preceding clause or last antecedent, unless
something in the statute requires a different interpretation.
Stanton v City of Battle Creek, 466 Mich 611, 616 (2002)
6. "And" and "or" are not interchangeable, and the court will give them their strict
meaning when that does not render the sense dubious and there is no clear
contrary legislative intent.
Niles Twp v Berrien County Bd of Commissioners, 261 Mich App 308, 318 (2004)
7. "All" in a statute leaves no room for exceptions.
People v Monaco, 474 Mich 48, 55 (2006)
8. The word "shall" refers to a mandatory duty or requirement.
Wayne County v State Treasurer, 105 Mich App 249, 252 (1981)
9. "May" is permissive and indicates discretion.
In re Forfeiture of Bail Bond, 276 Mich App 482, 492 (2007)
V External Aids to Interpretation
1. Preamble to statute is not binding authority for interpreting a statute, but it may be
considered.
Malcolm v City of East Detroit, 437 Mich 132, 143 (1991)
2. Statutory headings are not conclusive proof of legislative purpose, but they may be
considered.
Camaj v SS Kresge co., 426 Mich 281, 290 (1986)
Bankhead v McEwan, 387 Mich 610 (1972)
3. Official comments to a uniform act may be considered, although they lack the force
of law.
In re Estate of Seymour, 258 Mich App 249,254 (2003)
4. A statute is considered in light of circumstances that existed at the time of
enactment, not with reference to later developments.
Cain v Waste Management, Inc., 472 Mich 236, 258 (2005)
5. Statements of individual legislators during the debate on a bill or statements made
later are not considered since they cannot be attributed to the entire legislature.
In re Complaint of MCTA, 241 Mich App 344, 374 (2000)
6. Courts may look at legislative history, including the journals chronicling legislative
history and changes to the bill.
In re MCI Telecommunications Complaint, 460 Mich 396, 415 (1999)
Jenks v Brown, 219 Mich App 415, 419 (1996)
7. Legislative analysis is generally not a persuasive indicator of legislative intent.
Analysis are not an official record of the Legislature, they represent the views of
staff, rather than legislators and are not part of the legislative process.
People v Davis, 468 Mich 77, 79 (2003)
Morales v Michigan Parole Bd., 260 Mich App 29, 44 (2003)
8. Interpretations of statutes by the agency that administers it are given great
deference. But agency interpretations are not given deference if they are contrary
to the plain meaning of the statutory language.
Adrian School Dist v Michigan Public School Employees Retirement System,
458 Mich 326, 337 (1998)
Ludington Service Corp. v Acting Commissioner of Insurance, 444 Mich 481,
498 (1994)
The term "natural born citizen" is therefore meaningful and distinct from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen" or even "inhabitant."

We know that any person born within the territory of the United States is a "citizen."
INA: ACT 301 - NATIONALS AND CITIZENS OF THE UNITED STATES AT BIRTH


Sec. 301. [8 U.S.C. 1401] The following shall be nationals and citizens of the United States at birth:

(a) a person born in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof;

(b) a person born in the United States to a member of an Indian, Eskimo, Aleutian, or other aboriginal tribe: Provided, That the granting of citizenship under this subsection shall not in any manner impair or otherwise affect the right of such person to tribal or other property;

(c) a person born outside of the United States and its outlying possessions of parents both of whom are citizens of the United States and one of whom has had a residence in the United States or one of its outlying possessions, prior to the birth of such person;

(d) a person born outside of the United States and its outlying possessions of parents one of whom is a citizen of the United States who has been physically present in the United States or one of its outlying possessions for a continuous period of one year prior to the birth of such person, and the other of whom is a national, but not a citizen of the United States;


(e) a person born in an outlying possession of the United States of parents one of whom is a citizen of the United States who has been physically present in the United States or one of its outlying possessions for a continuous period of one year at any time prior to the birth of such person;

(f) a person of unknown parentage found in the United States while under the age of five years, until shown, prior to his attaining the age of twenty-one years, not to have been born in the United States;


(g) a person born outside the geographical limits of the United States and its outlying possessions of parents one of whom is an alien, and the other a citizen of the United States who, prior to the birth of such person, was physically present in the United States or its outlying possessions for a period or periods totaling not less than five years, at least two of which were after attaining the age of fourteen years: Provided, That any periods of honorable service in the Armed Forces of the United States, or periods of employment with the United States Government or with an international organization as that term is defined in section 1 of the International Organizations Immunities Act (59 Stat. 669; 22 U.S.C. 288) by such citizen parent, or any periods during which such citizen parent is physically present abroad as the dependent unmarried son or daughter and a member of the household of a person (A) honorably serving with the Armed Forces of the United States, or (B) employed by the United States Government or an international organization as defined in section 1 of the International Organizations Immunities Act, may be included in order to satisfy the physical-presence requirement of this paragraph. This proviso shall be applicable to persons born on or after December 24, 1952, to the same extent as if it had become effective in its present form on that date; and

(h) a person born before noon (Eastern Standard Time) May 24, 1934, outside the limits and jurisdiction of the United States of an alien father and a mother who is a citizen of the United States who, prior to the birth of such person, had resided in the United States. 302 persons born in Puerto Rico on or after April 11, 1899
And here's an item of interests regarding John McCain's eligibility:
Sec. 303. [8 U.S.C. 1403]

(a) Any person born in the Canal Zone on or after February 26, 1904, and whether before or after the effective date of this Act, whose father or mother or both at the time of the birth of such person was or is a citizen of the United States, is declared to be a citizen of the United States.


(b) Any person born in the Republic of Panama on or after February 26, 1904, and whether before or after the effective date of this Act, whose father or mother or both at the time of the birth of such person was or is a citizen of the United States employed by the Government of the United States or by the Panama Railroad Company, or its successor in title, is declared to be a citizen of the United States.
And specifically related to Obama's Hawiian birth:
Sec. 305. [8 U.S.C. 1405] A person born in Hawaii on or after August 12, 1898, and before April 30, 1900, is declared to be a citizen of the United States as of April 30, 1900. A person born in Hawaii on or after April 30, 1900, is a citizen of the United States at birth. A person who was a citizen of the Republic of Hawaii on August 12, 1898, is declared to be a citizen of the United States as of April 30, 1900.
And here's a further distinction between "nationals" and "citizens."
Sec. 308. [8 U.S.C. 1408] Unless otherwise provided in section 301 of this title, the following shall be nationals, but not citizens of the United States at birth:

(1) A person born in an outlying possession of the United States on or after the date of formal acquisition of such possession;

(2) A person born outside the United States and its outlying possessions of parents both of whom are nationals, but not citizens, of the United States, and have had a residence in the United States, or one of its outlying possessions prior to the birth of such person;

(3) A person of unknown parentage found in an outlying possession of the United States while under the age of five years, until shown, prior to his attaining the age of twenty- one years, not to have been born in such outlying possession; and

(4) A person born outside the United States and its outlying possessions of parents one of whom is an alien, and the other a national, but not a citizen, of the United States who, prior to the birth of such person, was physically present in the United States or its outlying possessions for a period or periods totaling not less than seven years in any continuous period of ten years-

(A) during which the national parent was not outside the United States or its outlying possessions for a continuous period of more than one year, and

(B) at least five years of which were after attaining the age of fourteen years.

The proviso of section 301(g) shall apply to the national parent under this paragraph in the same manner as it applies to the citizen parent under that section.
In the entire USCIS database, there is only ONE reference made in passing to "natural born citizen," and that does not define the term at all except to distinguish "native" and "natural born" citizen women, and this is regarding repatriation, other than those citations to the Constitutional limitations on presidential qualifications that are required knowledge for naturalization applicants.

Therefore, it is reasonable to say that the USCIS does not view the term "natural born citizen" and "citizen" as synonymous, because it carefully avoids using the terms interchangeably, always referring only to "citizens by birth" or "naturalized citizens" or merely "citizens," but with one dicta exception never "natural born citizens."

This is compelling evidence that "natural born citizen" means something different from "citizen," or "citizen by birth" or "naturalized citizen."

Since we know that a "citizen" or a "citizen by birth" is the product of a) being physically born inside the US (or some territories with restrictions); b) to at least one parent who is a US citizen if born outside the US; c) to one foreign national parent if the other is a US citizen, either naturalized or by birth.

In no case are any such persons who derive their citizenship from a) being born in the US to a foreign parent(s); or, b) being born to a single US citizen parent either within or without the US, defined by the USCIS as a "natural born citizen."

Therefore, a "natural born citizen" is something else, and the only combination left that could describe this unique identifier is a child born to TWO parents, both of whom are US citizens, either by birth or naturalization.

Given the rules of statutory construction and the customary and historic administrative use of the relevant terms, there is no other rational or defensible alternative definition of "natural born citizen" to be had. To do as you do, which is to make "natural born citizen" and "citizen by birth" or "citizen" synonymous is to render the term "natural born" to be merely surplusage and therefore meaningless. But we know that this is not permissible under the canons of statutory interpretation and that the term "natural born" has special and specific meaning. As anyone can objectively see from the above, there is but one rational definition for that term, which is as meaning "born to parents both of whom are US citizens at the time of birth."

I never once said that natural born citizen doesn't mean something different from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen." It does.

A citizen can either be born a citizen, or be naturalized a citizen. If a law specifies that someone must be a "citizen" then either a natural born or natural-ized citizen will do. If the law specifies natural born citizen, then natural-ized citizen will not do.
And neither will a "citizen" or "citizen by birth." The Constitution and indeed all federal law I can find specifies "natural born citizen" in one place and one place only, but it specifies "citizen" in many millions of places throughout the laws, both federal and state. Again this shows that "natural born citizen" is a special class and sub-set of all citizens, not including citizens by birth or birth location alone, nor by naturalization, but rather a class of persons who are citizens by birth born to two parents who are both US citizens.
Seth wrote: That phrase appears in one and only one place in the Constitution, the qualification to be President, and you know full well that every word of the Constitution must be presumed to have meaning and that none are surplusage.
Look - there is only one place where the Constitution prescribes that anyone must be born a citizen of the US to be anything.
That's in the qualification for President. There is no place where it says a person must be "born a citizen" of the US to qualify for some other office. If it did, then you would have a point. But, it doesn't, so you don't.
Correct, there are three classes of citizenship in the United States: Naturalized citizens, citizens, and natural born citizens. Naturalized citizens are granted citizenship by the government. Citizens are those persons born in the US or who are born to at least one US citizen parent if born outside the US. But only children born to two US citizens, whether born abroad or in the US, are natural born citizens.

Thus, the qualification for being a Senator is that one be a "citizen" for nine years, and for a Representative seven years. No distinction is drawn between naturalized citizens and citizens by birth location or parentage in those provisions. But there is such a specific distinction in the qualification to be President.


Constitutional Qualifications for Senator
U.S. Constitution

No Person shall be a Senator who shall not have attained to the Age of thirty Years, and been nine Years a Citizen of the United States, and who shall not, when elected, be an Inhabitant of that State for which he shall be chosen. [U.S. Constitution, Article I, section 3, clause 3]

Delegates to the 1787 Constitutional Convention supported establishing membership limitations for House and Senate members. Influenced by British and state precedents, they set age, citizenship, and inhabitancy qualifications for senators, but voted against proposed religion and property requirements.

Age: The constitutional framers debated the minimum age for representatives before they considered the same qualification for senators. Although Delegate James Wilson stated that “there was no more reason for incapacitating youth than age, where the requisite qualifications were found,” other delegates were in favor of age restrictions. They were familiar with England’s law requiring members of Parliament to be twenty-one or older, and they lived in states which either barred legislators under the ages of twenty-one or twenty-five from the upper chambers.

As introduced in May 1787, James Madison’s Virginia Plan left Senate age restrictions to the delegates to decide, only stating that members of the second branch must “be of the age of ____ at least.” Without debating the subject further, delegates voted in favor of filling the blank with thirty, and passed the clause unanimously on June 25, three days after designating twenty-five as the minimum age for representatives. In The Federalist, No. 62, Madison justified the higher age requirement for senators. By its deliberative nature, the “senatorial trust,” called for a “greater extent of information and stability of character,” than would be needed in the more democratic House of Representatives.

Citizenship: Under English law, no person “born out of the kingdoms of England, Scotland, or Ireland” could be a member of either house of Parliament. While some delegates may have admired the “strictness” of this policy, no framers advocated a blanket ban on foreign-born legislators. Instead, they debated the length of time members of Congress should be citizens before taking office. The states’ residency qualifications offered moderate guidelines in this regard. New Hampshire’s state senators needed to be residents for at least seven years prior to election. In other states, upper house members fulfilled a five, three, or one-year requirement, while state representatives completed a residency period of one to three years.

The Virginia Plan made no mention of citizenship when Edmund Randolph introduced it to the convention in May. Two months later, the Committee of Detail reported a draft of the Constitution. Article V, section 3 included a four-year citizenship requirement for senators. On August 9, Gouverneur Morris moved to replace the four-year clause with a fourteen-year minimum. Later that day, delegates voted against citizenship requirements of fourteen, thirteen, and ten years before passing the nine-year provision, making the Senate requirement two years longer than that for the House of Representatives.

At the convention, delegates viewed the nine-year citizenship qualification as a compromise “between a total exclusion of adopted citizens” and an “indiscriminate and hasty admission of them.” While they were concerned that the Senate, especially, might be subject to foreign influence, they did not wish to close the institution to naturalized citizens of merit. Two foreign-born framers expressed these opposing considerations. According to Pierce Butler, recent arrivals were dangerously attached to their countries of origin, a particular concern for senators whose role would include review of foreign treaties. From his own experience, he believed that naturalized citizens would need sufficient time to learn and appreciate American laws and customs before they could serve in government. For James Wilson, however, lengthy citizenship requirements “discouraged and mortified” everyone they excluded. He agreed with Benjamin Franklin that a strict policy would hinder positive immigration and offend those Europeans who had supported the Revolutionary War. On August 13, Wilson moved to reduce the Senate qualification by two years. Delegates rejected his motion, and confirmed the nine-year requirement by an 8 to 3 vote.
This points out that the matter of foreigners having influence in the Congress was of importance to the Founders, and it's asinine to assume that they did not have at least that much concern for the office of the President. And the historical evidence proves that they did have such concerns and rather than allowing a foreigner of any kind to hold that office, they set very strict requirements above and beyond mere "citizenship" for the Presidency. If they had meant that anyone who was a "citizen" could be President, they would not have included the term "natural born" at all, they would have simply set the same sort of requirement as they did for Senators.

But they didn't, they set a much higher bar.
Look at the 14th Amendment, incidentally, "All persons born or naturalized in the United States, and subject to the jurisdiction thereof, are citizens of the United States and of the State wherein they reside." There are only two options. A citizen is either (a) born in the US, or (b) naturalized in the US. That's it. That usage does not conflict with the verbiage in the original constitution that the president must be a natural born citizen, because it's just specifying that he can't be the other kind of citizen (natural-ized) and be President.
Wrong. The 14th Amendment specifies that all persons born in the United States are "citizens," but it is utterly silent on who is a "natural born citizen" and cannot therefore be read as disclaiming another class or sub-set of citizenship of "natural born citizen." Yes, all persons born in the US, regardless of the nationality of their parents, are "citizens," but that does not mean that a select sub-set of those persons cannot be "natural born citizens" as distinct from "citizens." That is precisely what the inclusion of "natural born" in the Constitution does and means; there is a third class of citizens, natural born citizens born of two parents who are both US citizens, and only they are eligible to hold the office of President.

The 14th Amendment was also written to deal with the problem of freed slaves who were of uncertain citizenship, and the intent of the 14th Amendment was NOT to repeal or change the qualifications or those eligible to be President. There is no indication in the Amendment or the debates surrounding it evidencing an intent to repeal or change the meaning of Article II's language, so this is a vacuous argument. The 14th Amendent's language is broad and general and intended to sweep within the definition of "citizen" all those freed slaves who had previously been chattels. As a statute of general application, it does not overrule or repeal a statute of specific application unless it does so "manifestly and obviously" and with clear legislative intent to do so.

The provisions of Article II are a law of specific application that carves out a sub-set of all citizens who alone are eligible to be President that was not overruled or repealed by the 14th Amendment's general language and utter lack of manifest intent to so repeal that provision of Article II.
I have presented countervailing evidence -- the correct wording of the Constitution. I've pointed out the defects in your argument, which mean your arguments are defective, and therefore unpersuasive. Since you're making the positive assertion, you've failed your burden of proof.
Not really. All you've done is speciously claim that "citizen" or "citizen by birth" and "natural born citizen" are synonymous, but you've failed utterly to provide any precedent, ruling, regulation or legal argument supporting this claim or making a persuasive argument as to why this interpretation should be accepted, whereas I have pointed out in painful detail the obvious and only rational definition of "natural born citizen" that meets the necessary rules of statutory interpretation that were well known to the people who wrote the Constitution and ratified it.
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"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Thu Mar 08, 2012 10:04 pm

Duplicate post removed.
"Seth is Grandmaster Zen Troll who trains his victims to troll themselves every time they think of him" Robert_S

"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke

"Those who support denying anyone the right to keep and bear arms for personal defense are fully complicit in every crime that might have been prevented had the victim been effectively armed." Seth

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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Coito ergo sum » Thu Mar 08, 2012 10:22 pm

Dude - for the love of fucking god damn mother fucking Christ.

Pay the FUCK attention.

This is NOT my position: "...your notion that "natural born citizen" is synonymous with "citizen"..."

Not - NOT

NOT

Fucking NOT!

My fucking position.

Natural born citizen is not the same as "citizen." Got it? Got fucking IT!!!!!?????

Good.

A "citizen" can be (a) natural born, or (b) naturalized.

A Congressman need only be a fucking god damn motherfucking "citizen" because a Congressman can be fucking god damn mother fucking naturalized.

The word "natural born citizen" is used instead of just "citizen" because a "naturalized" citizen can't be fucking President.

There is no conflict.

When there is no special definition in the law for a term, the term is construed according to its plain meaning. That is one of the primary maxims of legislative drafting and legislative interpretation. The plain meaning of natural born, means that you popped out of chick's vagina - i.e. that you were "existing in or caused by nature; not made or caused by humankind." See - that's different than "naturalized" because a "naturalized" citizen is someone who fucking well became a motherfucking god damn citizen "made or caused by humankind." Born means that you were born.

Thus, natural born citizen means that you popped out of a woman's vagina as a citizen. Other, manmade, means were not required to make you a citizen.

There is nothing in the plain language of the fucking words that refers to the fucking parents. There is nothing in the word natural, or born, or citizen, that states or implies anything to do with their parents.

Now, if you feel like claiming that there is a specialized legal meaning to "natural born citizen" that is not in accord with the plain fucking meaning of the words, then please, by all means show it.

Note - you claimed that there were two disparate terms int he Constitution -- one was "born citizen" and the other was "natural born citizen." You claimed that. You're fucking wrong about that. Admit it.
III General Principles of Interpretation
1. Every word of a statute should be read to give it meaning, and so the court must
avoid interpretations that render words unnecessary or meaningless.
In re MCI Communications, 460 Mich 396,415 (1999)
Every word of the Constitution, interpreting natural born citizen and citizen the way I have stated above, is given effect. No words are rendered meaningless. Natural born has a meaning. Citizen has a meaning. All of them have meanings. Nothing is rendered superfluous or unnecessary or meaningless.

You said:
"The term "natural born citizen" is therefore meaningful and distinct from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen" or even "inhabitant."
Yes, and as I defined them:

Citizen: Can be either natural born or naturalized.
Naturalized citizen: made a citizen through legal process
Natural born citizen: born in the US naturally.
Inhabitant: someone who inhabits the US
Resident: Someone who resides in the US
Domiciliary: Someone with domicile in the US

Where is the fucking conflict you keep pretending exists? What is supposedly "rendered meaningless?"
"You know how it is when you're walking up the stairs, and you get to the top, and you think there's one more step
Last edited by Coito ergo sum on Thu Mar 08, 2012 10:27 pm, edited 2 times in total.


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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Thu Mar 08, 2012 10:39 pm

apophenia wrote:
Beyond all the rot about Vatel and the meaning of the phrase "natural born subject" in British common law, the matter revolves not on a disagreement that the phrase "natural born" citizen has this or that meaning, but more that there is no clear evidence about what if any meaning it has apart from simply referring to a person born a citizen, perhaps on U.S. soil.


As I just pointed out, according to the canons of legal interpretation that were both known at the time and still today, no word in a statute or the Constitution is meaningless surplusage. If the term "natural born citizens" had been used ANYWHERE ELSE in the Constitution other than Article II, then you would have a valid argument that it has a synonymous meaning with "citizen," which is the ONLY other term ever used in the Constitution. But that's not the case. The Constitution doesn't even mention "naturalized citizens" it merely gives Congress plenary authority to make a "uniform law of naturalization." The effect is that a naturalized citizen is just a citizen and has all the rights and obligations of any other citizen once naturalized. Naturalization is merely one of two methods of gaining citizenship in the United States. The other is by birth, but birth where and to whom is also a subject of Congressional authority, and Congress has passed complex laws determining when a child is a "citizen by birth" or a "naturalized citizen." Nowhere in the federal statutes is the phrase "natural born citizen" found in reference to any citizen that would make it a term of general application. In every single case, children (and adults) are either "citizens by birth" or "naturalized citizens." But there are complex rules about being a "citizen by birth" and they happen to involve the citizenship of the child's parents and the location of birth.

If you review the statutes I cited just previously you will see that this is the case. And in the interpretations of those statutes, over time, the importance and status of the parents has changed over time. There was a time when a foreigner could not be naturalized merely as a function of race. Those statutes have been long overturned, but nationality of the parents is of prime importance in determining whether a child NOT born within the US is either a "citizen by birth" or may be naturalized as a citizen.

One cannot simply ignore these factors when analyzing the unique qualification for being President, which uses a unique and specific term found nowhere else not just in the Constitution, but nowhere in current or past immigration regulations and laws.

The legal implication of this unique usage is that it means something and it's important to know what that something is. And it's clear from the record that it's not synonymous with "citizen by birth" because a citizen by birth can be either born in the US to two foreign parents or born abroad to two US parents or to one US parent. Thus, "natural born citizen" has a different meaning than "citizen by birth" and the only logical and rational alternative left is "born to two US citizen parents" which makes such persons a sub-set of all citizens, which is perfectly appropriate and supportable given the Founders concerns with the potential for foreign influences on the highest administrative office in the land.

Coito is right in pointing out that the birthers assertion that it has some specific meaning is the claim that shoulders the burden of proof.


And I have met that burden merely by pointing out the canons of statutory interpretation that control the reading of the provisions of the Constitution. "Natural born citizen" means something different from "citizen," "citizen by birth" or "naturalized citizen." That is indisputable. What remains is determining what that phrase means that is different from what the other phrases mean, and I've shown that there is only one rational interpretation to be had in that regard; it means "born of two parents who are each a US citizen." It can have no other meaning in the law without being defined as surplusage, which is prohibited by the canons of statutory interpretation. If you can come up with another meaning that is not synonymous with "citizen by birth" or "naturalized citizen," I'd be happy to rebut your claim too.

But just calling it "rot" doesn't cut the mustard I'm afraid.

We don't have to demonstrate that the phrase has some other meaning than this, only that there is no demonstrable root or support for any specific meaning.
Yes, actually you have to exactly that. Another canon of statutory interpretation says that words and phrases are to given their ordinary and common meaning unless the context requires otherwise. Combine that with the rule against surplusage and you find that if you claim a phrase means something, you must support what that meaning is with rational arguments based in the law and precedent, of which you have none. There is absolutely no evidence that "natural born citizen" and "citizen" are synonyms, and there is substantial evidence that they are NOT synonyms, but that they have separate and distinct meanings. Your burden then is to support with valid legal reasoning and precedents what your desired interpretation is that still succeeds in distinguishing the one term from the other. Please feel free to consider that and post your reasoning and citations in support of your preferred interpretation.

This is not, contrary to your assertion, a matter of everybody getting to interpret the phrase according to their own best judgment. This is a matter of strict legal interpretation and the rules of statutory interpretation must be followed when supporting your interpretation.
I'm reminded of my reading of the bible. I usually read the King James version, but a frequent notation alongside the passages is an indication that the translation of this or that term is unclear or unknown. There are many words in the bible whose specific meaning has simply been lost to time. That doesn't render these passages meaningless, but it does make it a tough sell for anyone who wants to claim that a specific passage has a specific interpretation based on their putative meaning of one of those lost words. Sure, they can make all sorts of philological, hermeneutic or what have you argument for their pet meaning, but at the end of the day, the most probable conclusion is that we just don't know what the original author meant with that word.

The Birthers are in the same position. We just don't know what, if any, difference the founders intended in using that phrase, and most of the Birther arguments tend to devolve into attempting to channel the spirits of the founders by creating a simulacrum of their age and time by cobbling together all the political documents and theory of the time, kind of like a Walt Disney animatron history display where we can "feel like we're actually listening to Honest Abe speak!" I'm reminded of the fundamentalist slogan, "God said it, I believe it, end of discussion."
Except that substantial evidence exists that we DO know what the author's original intent was. We can reason that there is a distinct meaning separate from "citizen" (the only other iteration used in the Constitution) and "natural born citizen" because we know that the cadre of lawyers and well-educated men who wrote the document were well aware of the canons of statutory interpretation themselves, since those canons were in common use at the time and have not substantially changed since before the Magna Carta in English law, which understandings and interpretations are the basis of our own legal system. That's why the Vattel theory is of such importance. It was a scholarly examination of the state of the laws of nations that was contemporary to the writing of the Constitution and with which many of the Founders were familiar.

This sort of "original intent" analysis is a commonplace task of the federal and Supreme Courts, and there is plenty of documentation in the record of the thoughts and arguments of the authors and ratifiers of the Constitution upon which to base such determinations. Unlike the Bible, the authors of the Constitution were well-known for their expositions on the document both as it was being written (the records of the Constitutional Convention) and during the ratification process and the debates surrounding ratification.

So, we are not without evidence of what the Founders meant, understood and intended, which makes your argument a nullity.
Unfortunately, with the Birther issue, we don't really have any clear case where "the founders said it," so we're left with impotent speculations, which, even if you personally find them persuasive, are not a good foundation for law.
Actually, the point is that there is substantial evidence in the record upon which to base such a claim, as I have demonstrated.
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Re: That Obama eligibility issue could come back again

Post by Seth » Thu Mar 08, 2012 11:15 pm

Coito ergo sum wrote:Dude - for the love of fucking god damn mother fucking Christ.

Pay the FUCK attention.

This is NOT my position: "...your notion that "natural born citizen" is synonymous with "citizen"..."

Not - NOT

NOT

Fucking NOT!

My fucking position.

Natural born citizen is not the same as "citizen." Got it? Got fucking IT!!!!!?????

Good.
Your position is still wrong.
A "citizen" can be (a) natural born, or (b) naturalized.
Nope. A "citizen" can be either a "citizen by birth" or a "naturalized citizen" and may be a "natural born citizen" if, but only if both of that person's parents are US citizens.
A Congressman need only be a fucking god damn motherfucking "citizen" because a Congressman can be fucking god damn mother fucking naturalized.
Yup, and therefore he is a "citizen," but he's not a "natural born citizen." He's a naturalized citizen.
The word "natural born citizen" is used instead of just "citizen" because a "naturalized" citizen can't be fucking President.

There is no conflict.
Right. And neither can a citizen with one parent who is not a US citizen, which is what status as a "natural born citizen" requires.
When there is no special definition in the law for a term, the term is construed according to its plain meaning. That is one of the primary maxims of legislative drafting and legislative interpretation. The plain meaning of natural born, means that you popped out of chick's vagina - i.e. that you were "existing in or caused by nature; not made or caused by humankind." See - that's different than "naturalized" because a "naturalized" citizen is someone who fucking well became a motherfucking god damn citizen "made or caused by humankind." Born means that you were born.
Wrong. That interpretation defies logic because all persons are "natural born persons" and no one at the time of the drafting of the Constitution even considered "created by man" as a possibility for a child, so that's a vacuous argument. "Natural born" has specific political meaning separate and distinct from "citizen" or from "citizen by birth" or "naturalized citizen." As the Vattel theory points out, the status of a child under English Common Law was highly complex and highly dependent not only on where the child was born physically, but also to whom the child was born, and what the political status of both of the parents were when the child was born.

Some children were citizens but not subjects, some were subjects, and which was which is a complex political matter determined by the political affiliations of the parents and the location where the child was born. So, a child could be born to two British subjects anywhere inside a British Empire territory and would be a British subject with duties to the King of England and the English state but could also be a CITIZEN of, say, India and not the United Kingdom. Or, a child could be born to a British subject father and an Indian mother and be a British subject, or born to a British subject mother and an Indian citizen who is not a British subject and NOT be a British subject but still be an Indian citizen because under English law, status as a British subject devolves from the father, not the mother (or did at the time, which is what's important).

So, the Vattel theory says that in importing the concepts and understandings of British common law regarding citizenship, the Founders first rejected the "subject" classification and transformed it into the "citizen" concept, and then used the notions of national affiliation and loyalty to the United States as considerations in limiting qualification for President to only those citizens who were born of two US citizen parents, in order to reduce the potential for foreign influence upon the President, something that was well known in English history as the English monarchs commonly married off their crown princes and princesses to foreign princes and princesses precisely in order to bind the two nations together through foreign influence of the spouse upon the other.

It's evident that the Founders chose to avoid this potential by restricting the Presidency to natural born citizens, as distinguished from ordinary citizens by birth or naturalized citizens who might have foreign parents who could exercise undue influence.


Thus, natural born citizen means that you popped out of a woman's vagina as a citizen. Other, manmade, means were not required to make you a citizen.

There is nothing in the plain language of the fucking words that refers to the fucking parents. There is nothing in the word natural, or born, or citizen, that states or implies anything to do with their parents.
There is when you view the phrase according to the meanings and understandings OF THE TIME. What you think today is utterly irrelevant. What's important is what the FOUNDERS understood the words "natural born" to mean, and that meaning is not, evidently, what you think it is.
Now, if you feel like claiming that there is a specialized legal meaning to "natural born citizen" that is not in accord with the plain fucking meaning of the words, then please, by all means show it.
That's what I've been doing.
Note - you claimed that there were two disparate terms int he Constitution -- one was "born citizen" and the other was "natural born citizen." You claimed that. You're fucking wrong about that. Admit it.
No, I said several times that in the Constitution itself only two terms are used: "Citizen" and "Natural born citizen." That fact alone proves that the two terms are not synonymous. Note that "naturalized citizen" is NOT used in the Constitution anywhere, so your reference to that term is spurious. There are two terms used, and they are, according to the canons of statutory interpretation, different terms. Since your argument that "natural born" means "not artificially created" is spurious because there was no such thought in the minds of the Founders, it means something else. Since the Constitution does not itself define or mention "naturalized citizen" that too is surplusage. There are citizens and natural born citizens. That's it. How one becomes a citizen is not really relevant, and I only include it for clarity. Under the Constitution, a naturalized citizen is still just referred to as a citizen, not as a naturalized citizen. In the qualifications for Senator it says one must be a citizen for nine years prior to taking office. It does not say, but merely implies that a naturalized citizen is eligible, and that is true.

But the qualification for President excludes everyone except a natural born citizen from eligibility, and since the Constitution itself does not define the term, as the Supreme Court said, it's necessary to look elsewhere for the original meaning, understanding and intent of the phrase, and the most compelling evidence in the record contemporaneous with the drafting of the document that points to the understandings of the Founders and ratifiers is the Vattel theory.

Now, it may be that this is not enough to prevail, but it's certainly enough to raise a "controversy" that the courts should rule upon. And that's all I'm asking for.
III General Principles of Interpretation
1. Every word of a statute should be read to give it meaning, and so the court must
avoid interpretations that render words unnecessary or meaningless.
In re MCI Communications, 460 Mich 396,415 (1999)
Every word of the Constitution, interpreting natural born citizen and citizen the way I have stated above, is given effect. No words are rendered meaningless. Natural born has a meaning. Citizen has a meaning. All of them have meanings. Nothing is rendered superfluous or unnecessary or meaningless.
To you, perhaps. But that's not the metric. The metric is what the Founders understood the phrase to mean, which is what must be discerned by the courts, and the Vattel theory is compelling evidence that you are wrong.
You said:
"The term "natural born citizen" is therefore meaningful and distinct from "citizen" or "naturalized citizen" or even "inhabitant."
Yes, and as I defined them:

Citizen: Can be either natural born or naturalized.
Naturalized citizen: made a citizen through legal process
Natural born citizen: born in the US naturally.
Inhabitant: someone who inhabits the US
Resident: Someone who resides in the US
Domiciliary: Someone with domicile in the US

Where is the fucking conflict you keep pretending exists? What is supposedly "rendered meaningless?"
"You know how it is when you're walking up the stairs, and you get to the top, and you think there's one more step
The Constitution never uses the phrase "naturalize citizen" or "citizen by birth" for that matter, it uses "citizen" and "natural born citizen" only. Therefore these are two distinct classes of citizen. And since the Constitution does not distinguish between "naturalized citizen" and "citizen,' and in fact deliberately does not do so in citing the qualifications to be a Senator, one cannot infer that which does not exist in the list, under the canon that says that if a list of things is provided, that list is exclusive and other items may not be added to the list. Therefore, if the Founders wished to distinguish citizens from naturalized citizens, they would have done so. They didn't. They distinguished citizens from natural born citizens, which means that natural born citizens are different from citizens, whether they are naturalized or citizens by birth. Natural born citizens are something else entirely, and the Vattel theory shows us what the contemporary understandings of the Founders and the ratifiers was, which is not as you suggest, because what you suggest makes "natural born" surplusage and makes the phrase synonymous with "citizen," which is clearly not the case.

So, it remains that there is a valid controversy that the courts need to rule upon.
"Seth is Grandmaster Zen Troll who trains his victims to troll themselves every time they think of him" Robert_S

"All that is required for the triumph of evil is that good men do nothing." Edmund Burke

"Those who support denying anyone the right to keep and bear arms for personal defense are fully complicit in every crime that might have been prevented had the victim been effectively armed." Seth

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