And Huxley's trumpeting of the Atheist's Fallacy makes his argument valid how, exactly?Brian Peacock wrote: For one, that's a blind assertion from a self-serving and partisan definition which does not fit the general theistic view that God (the national deity of the ancient Israelites) is a personal being who acts as a participatory agent in the material world. And for two, Huxley knew what he meant.
Seth wrote:... which is not a rational conclusion because a) he bases his presumption on human descriptions of God(s)...
A true one based in scientific observation and analysis of course...Er, what other kind of description can there be
A precise description of the Atheist's Fallacy. Thank you.- and besides, Huxley was reacting to the claims and assertions of the theists of his time and not pulling a description of God out of thin air.
Seth wrote:... which is the Atheist's Fallacy in a nutshell...
You've debunked nothing. The Atheist's Fallacy exists because it is simply irrational to draw a conclusion about the existence or non-existence of God based on what theists have to say about it. The logic should be obvious to one of your evident intelligence: If the claims of theists are misguided, inaccurate or just flatly wrong, then drawing a conclusion as to the non-existence (or indeed the existence) of God based upon those claims is completely irrational. I really don't understand why this is so hard for you to understand.Already debunked.
Seth wrote:... and b) because he has no evidence that God(s) are as described by humans.
No, he's wrong because merely because HE (or you, or indeed all of humanity) is unaware of critically robust scientific evidence proving that God exists does not mean that God does not exist any more than Newton's lack of knowledge about quarks meant that quarks do not exist. One may rationally look at the theist description of God, find no evidence that anything that fits that description exists, but still be wrong about the existence of God because God is neither created by nor constrained by the opinions of theists as to his/her/its nature, character or existence. God can still exist even if theists are completely wrong about his/her/its nature and can still exist even if you, and every other person on the planet, scientist or otherwise, cannot find any critically robust scientific evidence that God exists at this time and stage of human intellect and knowledge.His point exactly. One cannot secure knowledge of anything claimed as an actual-factual thing (here, a specific type of entity with particular personal attributes who acts as a participatory agent in the natural world) but for which there are no proportionate and relevant (empirical, observable, material, etc) evidences.
Therefore God is not necessarily unknowable, merely unknown.
Seth wrote:... Because it is possible for God(s) to be both material phenomena not yet detectable or quantifiable by humans......
And yet it remains a logical and perfectly "scientific" truth, just as the existence of quarks defied Newton's understanding of physics.This is a (necessarily) un-evidenced assertion about the nature of God indistinguishable from a fiction or a falsehood.
You are resorting to the Atheist's Fallacy again by basing your argument on the potentially false premise that God has been even minimally accurately described by theists. Consider the impact on your argument if God is nothing at all like what theists claim. God may therefore exist, in a form that we do not understand and cannot presently detect, examine or quantify. Our inability to perceive, examine and quantify God does not mean that God does not, or indeed cannot exist.
Seth wrote:... and for human descriptions of God(s) to be inaccurate...
For one, what kind of description of God can there by other than a 'human'?
The true description of course. You state the very core of the Atheist's Fallacy here by falsely presuming that human descriptions of a thing define the thing. They don't, they merely describe the thing in terms we understand. A "quark" by any other name would be as strange. If God exists as some intelligent entity which intervenes in human existence or indeed the existence and nature of the universe, the fact that humans can see but darkly, as through a glass, and can only interpret what they see through the flawed and unsophisticated filter of their puny intellect does not prove or disprove the existence of God.
And for two, as pointed out, your assertions about the nature of God are (necessarily) dependent on presupposing the existence of God.
The only assertion I make about any sort of god is that it/they may exist entirely independent of and in spite of human perception or understanding.
Strawman. I am most certainly not trying to convince anyone that any particular human interpretation of God exists, Israelite or otherwise.Now while I accept that you're quite entitled to take that wager yourself, and use it to bolster you argument as you see fit, you will have to do more than simply declaring it 'rational and logical' to do so iff you want to convince others that the possible existence of the national deity of the Israelites is probable enough to make the presupposition a necessary contingent factor in their assessment of, and conclusions about, the claims and assertions of theists.
Yes, it is exactly that. Not "like that," it is precisely that. You pull those conclusions out of thin air and irrational unreason. The most obvious logical failure that "supernatural" is even a valid and rational term. The word "supernatural" itself is an irrationality because it is predicated on the presumption that something which humans believe but do not understand fully can be outside of nature (which violates the basic principle of scientific thought to begin with) and it assumes falsely that a claim, in this case about God, defines the phenomenon as being axiomatically outside of nature. But what if the claim is both true and entirely within nature, and is therefore fully explainable and understandable through the scientific method, but human science is simply not up to the task of doing so at this stage of its evolution? Would you expect Cro-Magnon to understand particle physics? No. How arrogant is it for you to presume that you, or any other human, knows everything about the universe to the extent that anyone can draw a rational conclusion that God does not exist?And besides, what self-declared atheists hasn't arrived at atheism after taking the various claims for the existence of God or gods at face value, for the sake of argument? It's not like we pull the conclusion that there are no controlling supernatural agents out of thin air is it(?)
P.S. And your statement, by the way, is what proves that Atheists are indeed religious believers in the religion of Atheism. Thanks!
Seth wrote:... and because humans can have no "exact knowledge" (according to Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle) "agnosticism" is an irrational conclusion.
And you know that God does not belong to the quantum realm how, exactly?Firstly, HUP applies to the quantum realm only and does not even begin to apply here,
I'm not. I'm merely pointing out that if it is impossible to know both the location and velocity of a subatomic particle with absolute accuracy it's also impossible to know the exact and complete nature, character and existence of God, or anything else, and therefore Huxley's mandate for "exact knowledge" is itself a fallacious argument. His claim that God is unknowable because God is not a "material phenomenon" is false because he does not know that God is not a material phenomenon, he assumes this a priori by engaging the Atheist's Fallacy as a premise of his argument. Therefore, because the Atheist's Fallacy is a fallacy, his entire argument about "material phenomena" and God's assumed nature as being immaterial or supernatural, fails completely.even if you are going to characterise the claims for a (as yet undefined) knowledge of God as a binary function.
That's not his claim. His (indirect) claim is that all phenomena are "material phenomena" and therefore explainable by science, which purports to be fully capable of examining anything that is a material phenomenon and rationally describing and quantifying such phenomena using the scientific method. He uses the Atheist's Fallacy to presuppose that God is not a material (natural) phenomenon and then builds a house of cards on that weak foundation to claim that it is impossible to know if God exists because God is a priori not a material phenomenon merely because that is how theist's appear to describe God.And secondly, you've just shifted the goalposts again, arguing against Huxley's agnosticism on the basis of "exact knowledge", by which I take you mean actual-factual reliable certainty, when he was merely reacting to the unsupported claims for knowledge of theists and saying that as knowing something about something-or-other relies on demonstrating that something-or-other is actually the case then without such demonstration there can be no knowledge - even where it is claimed to exist (that is; knowledge with regards to the nature, scope, abilities, properties, responsibilities, etc, of God).
He takes the theist's at their word and accepts as a premise that their understanding and descriptions of God are accurate and authoritative (which is the Atheist's Fallacy in a nutshell) and irrationally concludes that it is impossible to know anything about God because God is putatively not a material phenomenon. But he has absolutely no rational evidence whatsoever upon which to base his conclusion that God is not a material phenomenon. Instead he relies on the irrational evidence of theist belief as his foundation for assuming God is not a natural, material phenomenon. This is an irrational conclusion.
The term agnostic was coined by the 19th-century British scientist Thomas H. Huxley, who believed that only material phenomena were objects of exact knowledge.
As I said, his entire argument is founded on the Atheist's Fallacy, and is therefore itself fallacious.Though I have adequately and truthfully reflected T.H. Huxley's basic position I invite you to read his own words on the matter if you want to argue the toss over what he really meant:
- Huxley on Agnosticism:
- Agnosticism, 1889
- Agnosticism: A rejoiner, 1889
- Agnosticism and Christianity, 1889
Position, agenda, tomato, tomato. My argument at the moment is not about political anything, it's about reason and logic. Any "political" objective is merely a manifestation of the conclusion that the religion of Atheism is no more and no less worthy of respect or legal support or legal suppression than any other religious belief. This is because Atheists consistently insist that only their opinions are rational and therefore should enjoy supremacy over all other religious opinions. They are wrong, and I'm proving it and I'm show exactly how and why.Nope, I used the word 'position', not agenda - specifically the political position of granting people a right to be left alone to believe anything they want.
It's a dirty job, but somebody has to stand for reason and logic here, and it sure ain't the Atheists in the group. If Atheist's don't like being handed the shit end of the religion stick, then they shouldn't be quite so arrogant about their own belief system.Nonetheless, it's not like we're unfamiliar with your self-declared agenda in this matter: to teach atheists a lesson in humility, rationality, and logic, to tone-police their expression of disbelief and incredulity about god-claims, and to chide them when and where they fail to meet your personal standards or accept the legitimacy and primacy of your opinion about their atheism.
You are incorrect. It is my argument that drives a social/political agenda. You are assuming the cart goes before the horse. In this case the horse is Atheist irrationality masquerading as reason and logic, and the cart is the arrogant presumption of intellectual superiority that goes along with that masquerade that drives the Atheist political and social agenda of extirpating religion from the public sphere.
LOLYou seemed to have wandered somewhat from the point. Nonetheless, not only do you define 'Atheism' as degenerate for your own purposes,
You're the one who brought up "political positions," not me.
and then define all atheists who don't meet your personal standards into that lamentable grouping simply to justify the stiff treatment you like to dish out,
No, not all atheists, just the Atheists.
Except it's not, as the recent Supreme Court ruling on gay marriage demonstrates.but you work very hard (some would suggest too hard) to conflate the secular principle advocated by atheists with atheists seeking to 'extirpate religion from the public sphere' (extinguish, destroy, crush, outlaw, etc) - this is pure hyperbole.
And yet large numbers of Atheists insist on exactly that when they presume to tell theists what they may or may not display or do in the public square merely because they find the visible evidence of theistic belief to be offensive to them because it makes them feel "unwelcome" at some public function or other. Lest it be lost on you, there is no right to "feel welcome" or "not feel excluded" anywhere, ever. What you, or anyone else "feels" is not any sort of metric by which the behavior or activities of others, particularly the majority (welcome to democracy!) do or do not do. Here in the US at least the Constitution says that "Congress shall make no law...respecting the free exercise of religion..." It does not say "Atheists have a right to not feel excluded." It merely says that the government will not establish a state religion and mandate or control (peaceable) worship by anyone, anywhere. Your right to be an Atheist ends at the next person's belief in God, and they may manifest that belief almost any way they (peaceably) choose, whether you like it or not. If something entering your psyche through thine eye offends thee, then pluck out thine eye and piss off and leave other people alone to do as they please.Secular atheists propose exactly the same thing as secular theists: that self-declared membership of a voluntary club does not and should not afford club members any particular rights, privileges, or exceptions, or any particular say or sway in public affairs.
And then there's democracy, a favorite crutch of this forum's argumentation. The dictates of democracy demand that the atheistic minority accept the decisions and choices of the theistic majority, just as it demands that the individualistic minority must accept the demands of the socialist majority. It cuts both ways, you see.
If you think that offering your deliberate caricature of atheists who advocate the secular principle as being staunch anti-theists 'Atheists' helps your case, then be my guest
Not that I need your permission, but thanks.
How can it be a strawman when it's my argument.
- but it's still a strawman that avoids the issues in favour of justifying cheapshots and personal jibes
Just as "Catlicker," "Chretian" and many other "exaggerated definitions" of theists are, which makes it fair-play turnabout. Sauce, goose, gander. Quitcherbitchen.(and no, I'm not saying that all atheists are automatically exempt from any such criticism - just that your exaggerated definition of 'Atheism' is a handy caricature for you to rely on).
If Atheists were logically and rationally correct, then it would be rational to have a political and social agenda of suppressing and eliminating religion from the human psyche. But Atheists are not correct, they are wrong, as I have shown, and therefore their insistence on suppressing religion is also wrong.
Or, as King Arthur said in Monty Python, "Run away! Run away!"As you invented this fallaciously self-serving category 'Atheists' I'll leave your tedious speechifying on 'Atheism' to someone who actually gives a toss.
The core argument here is reason and logic. If one professes to be basing one's actions and arguments on reason and logic then one should actually be doing so. Atheists are not.
Ibid.As above.
They are basing their agenda in an irrational antipathy to some particular negative secondary social effects of religious belief while ignoring the larger fact that religion exists for a reason, and that for the most part it makes life better for those who believe.
It is perfectly rational to excoriate those specific instances where religious belief leads to antisocial actions, but it is irrational and bigoted to tar the entirety of the religiously-believing human population with that particular brush.
I think that the facts of history show that religion is both an evolved behavior and exists because it provides evolutionary benefits that atheism does not. This does not of course mean that all iterations of religious belief are either socially or evolutionarily beneficial, but then again that's how evolution works, isn't it. In the end, the best religion will win.You suggest, when you say "that religion exists for a reason", that religiosity is socially necessary, at least to those who find it useful, and that it's also reasonable, wise, prudent, and judicious to remove from the surface of society (excoriate) any anti-social aspects of religious belief and/or practice.
Of course not. The moral value of any particular set of religious beliefs and practices is an entirely separate issue for each iteration.For one, I hope you are not setting yourself up as the sole arbiter of what particular aspects of any particular religion should or shouldn't be excoriated from the face of society and what forms of expression and action are appropriate in achieving this (such that when atheists call for it they are automatically being irrational, illogical, and unprincipled anti-theists, but when you call for it it's always and only ever reasonable and legitimate)?
If you see a broad brush being applied it's only because of the broad brush that's consistently applied by Atheists towards other religious beliefs and practices that presumes that Atheism is inherently more rational and logical, and therefore morally superior to all theistic beliefs. As I have shown, it's not, and that's my point. Atheist belief is a religious belief and Atheist practice is a religious practice that is not inherently superior to any other religious belief or practice.That would be applying a double standard. And for two, and that aside, the principle you outlined simply shits, walks, and quacks like secularism: a rose by any other name would smell as sweet.
Now THAT is a strawman argument. Once again, it's not about "dismissal" of anything. You may dismiss anything you like as unevidenced, just as anybody else can. But dismissal by you does not provide even a shred of actual critically robust evidence supporting a conclusion that your dismissal equates to the non-existence or falsity of the dismissed claim. It's just your opinion, which like your asshole, everyone has.Now that the red herrings have been filleted, if you'd care to address the topic at hand, and along with it my charge, that your requirement of an evidenced dismissal to an un-evidenced claim as being a rational obligation for validating any such dismissal, and that this should form the basis of a normative epistemic practice, is bunkum, then I await your reply in earnest and eager anticipation.