Seth wrote:
There is also a distinction made between independent contractors and employees. Independent contractors are not covered by the Fair Labor Standards Act at all.
Which is how everyone should be employed.
That's your opinion. There is a difference between "employee" and "independent contractor" under the law.
Seth wrote:
Why?
Because the two things are different. An independent contractor is a person who performs services for another person under an express or implied agreement and who is not subject to the other's control, or right to control, the manner and means of performing the services. An employee is a person who performs services for another who is subject to the other's control or right to control the manner and means of performing the services. Different things can be treated differently.
Seth wrote:
The only reason there is a distinction is for the convenience of government.
Not at all. It's convenient for people, too, like when I hire a roofer to put a roof on my house - he does the job, I pay him. If he misquotes the job and spends more on supplies and equipment, so he takes a loss on the job, then that's tough on him.
Seth wrote:
If you're an employee, your employer is required to withhold money from your paycheck, and he is required to contribute matching funds to FICA, Social Security and Medicare.
Something I'm glad I don't have to do when I hire a plumber.
Seth wrote:
If you're an independent contractor, all those expenses fall on you. And that's how it should be for everyone.
Why? Why can't there be exceptions for situations when someone is hired to do a job and be subject to the control and right to control the manner and means of doing the job?
Seth wrote:
The employer should not be made into an involuntary tax collector for the federal government, and individuals should be responsible for paying for their own retirement plans and medical care, just like independent contractors are.
Why not? And, why?
Seth wrote:
Seth wrote:
It's really the rare job that only pays minimum wage, and typically they are jobs that are filled by high school and college kids. That's the reality.
More importantly, every time the minimum wage is imposed or increased, entry-level employees like high school students, and particularly uneducated black youth, lose their jobs because employers aren't willing to pay unskilled employees more than they are worth, so they hire more experienced employees instead.
I'm not opposed to minimum wages, in practice. I think the minimum wage must be above zero, for example. Otherwise, we have peonage, serfdom and slavery. Even "voluntary" slavery, I think, ought to be prohibited. How high the minimum wage should be, however, ought to be more nuanced than it is today.
Why?
Because of the 13th Amendment, for one thing, and because allowing slavery, peonage and involuntary servitude is, IMO, bad policy.
Slavery is defined as "involuntary servitude." If it's voluntary, it's not slavery.[/quote]
Never said it was. I'm also opposed to people selling themselves into slavery. Granted, however, that not all volunteered labor is that.
Seth wrote:
Seth wrote:
Peonage, serfdom and slavery are all LEGAL conditions, not economic ones. If I, as a retired cop, want to go to work for my local police department on a part-time basis, but I want to get paid something so that I'm covered under the insurance, why shouldn't I be allowed to negotiate whatever salary is acceptable to me?
Because overall policy is not all about you. It's about recognizing the economic realities and measuring policy against that reality. If a determination is made that eliminating the minimum wage would ultimately result in too many people working for too low wages under the circumstances, then setting a minimum wage will set a reasonable floor below which nobody will go. That will mean, of course, that some folks who are willing to work for free, or to pay to work for someone else, won't be permitted to do so.
Who makes the determination that a wage is "too low?"
Congress
Seth wrote:
The government?
Yes.
Seth wrote:
Why?
Because it is empowered to make laws for the General Welfare and within the powers delegated to it under the Constitution, so long as it does not violate a fundamental right.
Seth wrote:
By what constitutional authority does the Congress presume to set wages?
It hasn't presume to "set wages," but it has presumed to set a minimum wage under the Commerce Clause.
Seth wrote:
Where is it written that the Congress has such authority?
Article I, Section 8, U.S. Constitution.
Seth wrote:
Last I checked, "setting wages" was not included in Article II, Section 8 of the Constitution.
Check Article I, Section 1, "All legislative powers herein granted shall be vested in a Congress of the United States..." And, Section 8,"The Congress shall have power to ....provide for the ... general welfare of the United States; [and] ... To regulate commerce .... and among the several states...;"
The FLSA is based on the Commerce Clause.
Seth wrote:
So where, exactly, does Congress derive its power to set a national minimum wage?
The Commerce Clause, although there are employers and employees who are not covered by the FLSA. Those that aren't are covered by State law.
http://www.dol.gov/elaws/esa/flsa/scope/screen10.asp
Seth wrote:
Seth wrote:
Is it better for people to be unemployed, and therefore a burden on the public purse, because they do not have sufficient skills to make them worthwhile employees, or is it better for them to hold some position and get paid for it, which allows them the opportunity to learn and make themselves more valuable to their employer, and to the market generally, so that they can advance themselves economically?
That's a matter of opinion and depends on policy goals. Maybe it is better for some people to be unemployed so that a great many people can be employed at a higher wage.
And should government get to decide this?
Why not?
Seth wrote:
What are the unintended consequences of vesting such vast economic power in Congress, pray tell?
You tell me.
Seth wrote:
Should not the markets determine who is employed and how much they get paid?
They generally do, except there is a minimum wage applicable to most employees and overtime laws applicable to most. The markets should determine who is employed and how much they get paid within the legal framework set by state, federal and local government. I'd like to not pay an annual business tax to my City, but they've seen fit to charge me. Should they have that power?
Seth wrote:
Is it better that tons of people earn extremely low wages so that a few people who are excited about the opportunity to work for free to gain experience can do so? Might be - but, whether that's the law of the land depends on the outcome of the political process. The answer to that question is not something that is carved in stone for all time, for all reasons, under all circumstances.
The most fundamental question you have to answer, before you can even address your questions, is where Congress derives its power to meddle in the wage structure of the nation.
I've answered that.
Seth wrote:
I see absolutely no authority anywhere in the Constitution that permits or authorizes Congress to make laws regarding wages in the U.S. Do you?
Yes, in relation to commerce among the several states. So, employees engaged in businesses engaging in interstate commerce, sure. Just like States can set minimum wages - the federal government can if it is part of its regulation of interstate commerce.
Seth wrote:
If so, where?
Article I, Section 8 - I think it's clause 2.
Seth wrote:
If the Congress has no power to regulate wages,
Why wouldn't they have the power to set a minimum wage for businesses engaged in interstate commerce?
Seth wrote:
then the political issues you put forward are moot.
I've already stated the broad grant of authority to the Congress.
Seth wrote:
And as I read it, and as the Founders intended it, Congress is strictly limited in its powers to those ENUMERATED powers found in the Constitution. Everything else, including regulating wages, is left to the states, or to the people, in accordance with the 10th Amendment.
How about not claiming what the "Founders" intended without specifying who intended it and citing your source. It's a pet peeve of mine, this "Founders" nonsense. These were men, not gods and deifying them with this "Founders" nomenclature and pretending that they were all of one "golden age" mind that was pure and right in all things is silly.
The enumerated powers are very broad and general, sometimes, and it seems fairly clear that setting a minimum wage for those engaged in or employed by entities engaged in interstate commerce is not outside the realm of regulating interstate commerce.
Seth wrote:
Seth wrote:
Legions of black youth wander the streets of our urban slums precisely because they have neither the skills, education or work ethic to make them worth seven bucks an hour to McDonalds for flipping burgers. But if McDonalds could employ them at two dollars an hour to start, it might be worth the time and trouble of educating and training them in a useful skill, and they would be benefiting the economy at the same time. So long as they are free to move on to other jobs, it's not serfdom, peonage or slavery. Their economic success becomes dependent upon their willingness to learn and work hard.
It may also be that the legions of black and white persons well-qualified to staff McDonald's grills who are now making $8 an hour would then be reduced to $2 an hour. At the current minimum wage, McDonalds is not at a loss for qualified help. It's not like they're saying "shit man, we can't find qualified help around here - if only we could pay only $2 an hour, then we could afford to train the crackheads on the street to flip burgers..."
Which might get the crackheads off of crack and start them up the ladder to economic success.
Maybe, maybe not. Maybe nothing will get the crackheads off crack, except themselves, and it seems to me very likely that a crackhead isn't going to hold down a job if you offer him $100 an hour. But, then again, this determination is ultimately for our elected officials to make.
Seth wrote:
Flipping burgers should not be a career aspiration for anyone,
Says you. And, me too, but then again I don't presume to speak for everyone.
Seth wrote:
it should be an entry-level foothold on the ladder to success, nothing more,
Oh, I don't know - some folks can't do much more. The baggers at the supermarket aren't going to be heading up the corporate ladder anytime soon.
Seth wrote:
and our newly-minted working class just out of high school should have ample access to such entry-level positions. It's a bad idea to reserve entry level jobs for experienced workers because it leaves nowhere for entry-level employees to start.
Assuming, of course, that we are in fact "reserving entry level jobs for experienced workers" by setting a minimum wage at like $7.25 an hour. I think most folks with any experience already got a raise.
Seth wrote:
Seth wrote:
That's what apprenticeship was all about. The master craftsman selected a young man who showed talent in the trade and gave him room and board, and perhaps a small stipend, in return for being taught the craft. A fair and reasonable quid pro quo relationship that is now essentially illegal in the US. Now, an apprentice has to be paid at least minimum wage, and often more than that in a unionized trade, which makes it too costly for the employer to afford, so he doesn't hire unskilled labor with the intent to educate them into the trade, he hires semi-skilled workers who have experience. And the new worker, no matter how skilled he might be, has to fork over money he doesn't have, or which he gets from the government, to go to "trade school" to learn the basic skills that an apprentice used to learn on the job, while having a place to live and food to eat. Thus, we have an entire trade school industry that costs both the public (through direct tax support and other government benefits) and the student inordinate amounts of money that could be avoided simply by allowing individuals wishing to learn a trade to freely negotiate with a master craftsman for an apprenticeship position that is beneficial economically to both.
Or, we could have a completely free market where those people who have no money get presented with contracts indenturing them as apprentices for 7 to 10 years, wherein they are basically the servant of the master (hence the old terminology for the law of "Master and Servant" under English and American jurisprudence). So instead of paying to go to school for a couple of years, the Master will only agree to apprentice the Servant if the Servant agrees to extended periods of servitude. Which is better? That's a policy decision for the legislature.
Isn't that essentially what we have now? Don't students "indenture" themselves to the federal student loan program, or a private lender, and don't schools charge such high fees that students are essentially indentured for a decade or more? How is that substantially different from what you outline?
With an apprenticeship, the Journeyman or the Master and the apprentice come to a contractual agreement about the term of the apprenticeship, and if the teacher renegs on the contract, the apprentice has legal recourse against him. I see nothing for the FEDERAL legislature to regulate. Perhaps a state legislature might wish to set mandatory contractual conditions for apprenticeships to prevent fraud by the Master Craftsman, but that's a legitimate role of government, policing society to prevent the initiation of force or fraud.
That's not what it was like when the "Founders" were around. The majority of workers back then were domestic servants, apprentices, temporary helpers, indentured servants, or slaves, and wage labor for a livelihood was the exception. The master-servant relationship was hierarchical and mutually obligatory and Masters were were allowed to impose harsh terms on the servant. When the servant failed to measure up to the norms or terms of labor, the servant might be disciplined, even whipped, by the master or imprisoned by a court. In colonial South Carolina (and Massachusetts, to a lesser extent), the master had statutory permission to put his servant to work for one week—not to exceed a total of two years—for every day the servant was absent from work without consent. In many colonies and localities, voluntary idleness was illegal, and a small number of the "indigent," "vagrant," or "dissolute" persons and criminals were bound to labor by law. We could go back to that way.