rachelbean wrote:Seth wrote:
I would take voluntary intoxication out of the mix entirely by making it an affirmative defense, which means that if the woman claims rape and lack of consent, all the defendant has to do is show that the woman was voluntarily intoxicated and he's automatically not guilty.
This puts the burden where it belongs; on the woman, to not get intoxicated and place herself in the hands of someone else in a sexual situation where her consent may be implied by her actions, regardless of her level of intoxication.
I'm pretty sure the burden belongs on the man, not to rape anybody.
True, but at what point is consent valid and is there ever a time when consent may be implied or inferred based on behavior?
And if a woman is passed out, probably best not to fuck her

Probably not, but we're discussing what ought to happen if that does happen.
You keep making it sound as if the only kind of date-rape there is, is when a women is consenting and doesn't remember it.
I had no intention to do so, and do not make that claim at all.
Actual rape happens when women are drinking too, and the kind of law your suggesting would pretty much make rape legal as long as a woman was drunk.
No, it wouldn't make rape legal, it would merely shift the burden of proving a prima facie case of rape occurred to begin with. If she's intoxicated and says "no" then continued sex is a crime. I've already said that. But if she doesn't say no, and her actions can be reasonably construed as consent (like getting naked) then her degree of intoxication should be a mitigating factor when it comes to the defendant, not an aggravating factor. If she's too intoxicated to say no, and yet she still creates a reasonable presumption of consent through her behavior (such as getting naked), why should a man face criminal charges for doing what he is evidently being asked to do?
And how exactly do you prove that unless she reports the rape immediately after it happens? If a woman stumbles into a police station and says she was just raped, should they take her BAC then? What's the level got to be to make it her fault automatically?
Yes, they should take her BAC if they can, but the point of an affirmative defense is that the charge can be laid, and the defendant brought to trial. At that point, he can raise an affirmative defense that the alleged victim was intoxicated and did consent to the act. If he can prove this claim by a preponderance of the evidence, by for example calling witnesses from the bar or others who might have seen her in a state of voluntary intoxication just prior to her leaving with the defendant, then the court is obliged to find the defendant not guilt at that point in the proceedings.
The basis of this ruling is that by becoming voluntarily intoxicated and going with the man voluntarily, the woman shows indications of consent which destroy the necessary guilt beyond a reasonable doubt standard that is required to convict on a criminal charge. This is because her voluntary intoxication renders her recollection of the events too suspect to be permitted as reliable testimony, and absent some independent evidence that she did not consent, like a witness who heard her screaming "no, stop" her version of the events amounts to nothing more than a "she said, he said" situation that cannot rise to the level required by a court to convict.
If he cannot provide evidence of her intoxication, then things go on as usual through the trial.
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